Ad slot · leaderboard (728×90 / responsive)Manual unit, below nav — clear of every quiz tap target
Home/ CompTIA A+ Core 1/ Domain 4: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Free · 220-1201 · Domain 4 of 5

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Domain 4: Virtualization and Cloud Computing

11% of the 220-1201 exam
Practice — Domain 4
4.1 Summarize cloud computing concepts

A small accounting firm signs up for a web-based email and CRM suite. Employees only open a browser to use the apps and adjust their own account preferences; the vendor patches and runs everything else. Which cloud service model is this?

Answer
Correct answerC · Software as a Service (SaaS)

The provider runs its applications on cloud infrastructure and users reach them through a thin client such as a web browser, configuring only user-specific settings while the provider manages everything else.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATrap of picking the model where the customer deploys and maintains operating systems and applications; IaaS supplies raw compute, not a finished browser-based application that the provider fully manages.
  • BNames the layer that supplies a development platform for building and deploying custom application code; the firm consumes a finished product instead of developing software, so PaaS does not fit.
  • DConfuses one of the five essential cloud characteristics with a service model; on-demand self-service describes how resources are provisioned, not which layer of the technology stack is delivered.
SaaS delivers the provider's application to users via a web browser; 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud computing concepts

A development team wants to deploy their own application using the provider's supported languages and runtime, without provisioning or patching servers, operating systems, or storage. Which cloud service model best fits?

Answer
Correct answerB · Platform as a Service (PaaS)

The provider supplies the runtime, libraries, and tools and manages servers, operating systems, and storage, while the consumer controls only the deployed applications and some hosting-environment settings.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATrap of choosing the layer where you must provision and maintain the operating system yourself; the team explicitly wants to avoid managing servers and operating systems, which IaaS still requires.
  • CNames the model that delivers a finished application to end users; here the team is building and deploying their own software, so a ready-made application does not match the requirement.
  • DConfuses a deployment model that combines private and public clouds with a service model describing which layer of the technology stack the provider delivers to the developer.
PaaS lets developers deploy code while the provider manages OS, servers, and storage; 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud computing concepts

A company wants to rent virtual servers in the cloud where their admins install, configure, and patch their own operating systems and applications, but they do not want to own physical hardware. Which model is this?

Answer
Correct answerD · Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

The provider supplies fundamental compute, storage, and networking while the consumer controls operating systems, storage, and deployed applications, matching the need to install and patch the OS.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATrap of selecting the top layer where the provider manages everything including the operating system; with SaaS the customer cannot install or patch their own operating system as required here.
  • BNames the platform layer where the provider manages the operating system for you; the scenario explicitly requires the customer to install and patch the operating system themselves.
  • CConfuses one of the five essential characteristics with a service model; resource pooling describes multi-tenant sharing of provider resources, not the layer of infrastructure being rented to the customer.
IaaS gives the consumer control of the OS, storage, and apps on rented infrastructure; 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud computing concepts

Several independent hospitals that must meet the same healthcare compliance and security rules agree to share one cloud infrastructure provisioned exclusively for their group. Which deployment model is this?

Answer
Correct answerA · Community cloud

The infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a specific community of organizations that share concerns such as mission, security requirements, policy, and compliance considerations.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BTrap of choosing the model open to the general public and shared among unrelated tenants; the hospitals want exclusive use limited to their compliance-bound group, not access for anyone.
  • CNames the model dedicated to a single organization; here several separate hospital organizations jointly share the environment, so a single-tenant private cloud does not describe the arrangement.
  • DConfuses a composition of two or more distinct cloud types bound together with a single shared environment serving multiple organizations that happen to have common concerns.
Community cloud serves organizations with shared concerns like compliance; 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud computing concepts

A retailer keeps sensitive customer records in its own on-premises private cloud but automatically bursts extra workloads to a public cloud provider during holiday traffic spikes, moving applications between the two. Which deployment model is this?

Answer
Correct answerC · Hybrid cloud

Two distinct cloud infrastructures (private and public) remain unique entities but are bound together to enable data and application portability, such as cloud bursting for load balancing.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATrap of naming only the public side; the retailer also keeps sensitive data in a private environment, so a single public cloud does not describe the combined setup it uses.
  • BNames only the dedicated on-premises side; the retailer also offloads to a public provider during spikes, so an exclusively private cloud omits the public component of the design.
  • DConfuses an environment shared by multiple organizations with common concerns with a single organization combining its own private and public clouds to gain elastic capacity during peaks.
Hybrid cloud binds private and public clouds for portability and cloud bursting; 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud computing concepts

An engineer needs more virtual machines and provisions them instantly through the provider's self-service web portal, never contacting any of the provider's staff. Which essential cloud characteristic does this demonstrate?

Answer
Correct answerB · On-demand self-service

A consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities such as server time and storage automatically as needed, without requiring human interaction with the service provider.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATrap of picking the trait about reaching services over the network from varied thin or thick clients; the scenario highlights provisioning without human interaction, not multi-device accessibility.
  • CNames the metering trait that monitors, controls, and reports resource usage; the scenario is about self-provisioning instantly, not about tracking or billing consumption for transparency.
  • DConfuses the multi-tenant trait where provider resources are shared among many consumers with the consumer's ability to provision capacity independently and automatically on demand.
On-demand self-service lets a consumer provision capacity without provider interaction; 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud computing concepts

During a product launch, an application automatically scales out to many extra servers to absorb the traffic surge, then scales back in afterward, so capacity always appears virtually unlimited to the team. Which characteristic is this?

Answer
Correct answerD · Rapid elasticity

Capabilities are elastically provisioned and released, sometimes automatically, to scale outward and inward with demand, appearing effectively unlimited to the consumer at any time.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATrap of choosing the multi-tenant sharing trait; the scenario emphasizes automatic scaling out and in with demand, not multiple tenants drawing from a common shared pool of resources.
  • BNames the usage-metering trait; while billing may follow consumption, the described behavior is automatic capacity scaling, not the monitoring and reporting of how much was used.
  • CConfuses network accessibility from diverse client devices with the elastic provisioning and release of capacity that scales rapidly outward and inward to match changing demand.
Rapid elasticity scales capacity out and in with demand, appearing unlimited; 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud computing concepts

A finance team receives a monthly statement listing the exact compute hours, storage gigabytes, and bandwidth their cloud workloads consumed, with usage continuously monitored and reported. Which essential characteristic does this reflect?

Answer
Correct answerA · Measured service

Cloud systems automatically control and optimize resource use through metering, and usage can be monitored, controlled, and reported, providing transparency for both provider and consumer.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BTrap of selecting the scaling trait; the scenario describes metering and billing of consumed resources, not the automatic outward and inward scaling of capacity to match demand.
  • CNames the self-provisioning trait; the focus here is transparent measurement and reporting of usage, not the consumer's ability to provision resources without provider interaction.
  • DConfuses the multi-tenant sharing of provider resources among consumers with the metering capability that quantifies, monitors, and reports each consumer's actual resource consumption.
Measured service meters, monitors, and reports usage transparently; 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

A data center deploys a hypervisor that installs directly onto the server hardware with no underlying host operating system, then runs dozens of production virtual machines on it. Which kind of hypervisor is this?

Answer
Correct answerC · Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor

It runs directly on the host hardware in place of a host operating system, scheduling VM resources straight to the hardware, and is common in enterprise data centers.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATrap of picking the hosted type that runs as an application on top of a conventional host operating system; the scenario installs the hypervisor directly on bare hardware with no host OS.
  • BNames an approach that shares the host kernel and packages only an application; it is not a hypervisor installed directly on server hardware to run full virtual machines with their own OS.
  • DConfuses the desktop hosted hypervisor used for end-user testing, which requires an underlying host operating system, with a bare-metal hypervisor installed directly on server hardware.
A Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor runs directly on hardware with no host OS; 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

A technician installs VirtualBox as an ordinary application on top of an existing Windows installation on a laptop to spin up a couple of test virtual machines. Which type of hypervisor is being used?

Answer
Correct answerB · Type 2 (hosted) hypervisor

It runs on a conventional operating system as a software layer or application, scheduling VM resources against the host OS, and suits individual users running a few guest operating systems.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATrap of selecting the bare-metal type that replaces the host operating system and runs directly on hardware; here the hypervisor is installed as an application on top of an existing Windows OS.
  • CNames a hypervisor embedded at the firmware level; the described product is ordinary software installed on top of Windows, not code residing in the system firmware below the operating system.
  • DConfuses a container runtime that shares the host kernel and isolates processes with a hosted hypervisor that runs complete guest operating systems on top of the host OS.
A Type 2 (hosted) hypervisor runs as an application on a host OS; 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

When an administrator creates a new virtual machine, it must be given virtual CPUs (vCPU), RAM, a virtual disk, and a virtual NIC. Which component is responsible for taking the host's physical resources and allocating these virtualized shares to each VM?

Answer
Correct answerD · The hypervisor (virtual machine monitor)

The hypervisor pools the host's processing, memory, and storage and reallocates them among virtual machines, giving each VM its allocated vCPU, RAM, and virtual disk.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATrap of attributing host resource allocation to the guest OS; the guest only manages resources already handed to it, while the hypervisor is what allocates physical host resources among the VMs.
  • BNames the firmware that initializes hardware at boot; it does not pool and distribute CPU, memory, and storage to running virtual machines the way a hypervisor continuously does.
  • CConfuses fixed hardware dedication with virtualization; the hypervisor time-shares physical cores as vCPUs across many VMs rather than permanently reserving one physical core per virtual machine.
The hypervisor pools host CPU/memory/storage and allocates them to VMs; 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

A user tries to run a 64-bit guest virtual machine in a client hypervisor on their laptop, but it refuses to start. Which host CPU capability most likely must be present and enabled in BIOS/UEFI to fix this?

Answer
Correct answerA · Intel VT-x or AMD-V hardware virtualization

Running 64-bit guests in a hypervisor requires a CPU with Intel VT-x or AMD-V support that is enabled in firmware; without it the host cannot start the virtual machine.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BTrap of assuming a dedicated GPU is mandatory; graphics acceleration is optional, whereas the actual blocker for 64-bit guests is missing or disabled CPU virtualization extensions in firmware.
  • CNames a security module used for measured boot and disk encryption such as BitLocker; a TPM is not what enables a hypervisor to run 64-bit virtual machines on the host CPU.
  • DConfuses a storage redundancy feature with virtualization support; RAID affects disk fault tolerance, not the processor's ability to run hardware-assisted 64-bit guest virtual machines.
64-bit client VMs need CPU virtualization (Intel VT-x/AMD-V) enabled in BIOS/UEFI; 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.1 Cloud-computing concepts

A live-streaming startup sees viewers swing from a few hundred to millions within minutes during events. Its public cloud automatically adds servers as load climbs and removes them seconds after it falls, with no tickets or planning. Which essential cloud characteristic does this BEST illustrate?

Answer
Correct answerC · Rapid elasticity

NIST defines capabilities that scale rapidly outward and inward commensurate with demand, in some cases automatically, appearing unlimited to the consumer.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ANames the multi-tenant sharing of provider hardware among many customers, but it does not describe capacity automatically growing and shrinking to track live demand.
  • BDescribes metering and reporting of consumed resources for billing transparency, yet the scenario emphasizes automatic capacity change, not usage accounting or pay-per-use reporting.
  • DRefers to reaching services over the network from diverse client devices, which is unrelated to provisioning and releasing capacity as demand spikes and then falls.
Rapid elasticity vs. other essential characteristics — 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Cloud-computing concepts

A hospital analytics team forecasts steady 20% yearly data growth and, each budget cycle, deliberately adds larger database instances and more storage to keep pace. This planned ability to grow the system to handle an increasing workload over time is BEST described as:

Answer
Correct answerA · Scalability

Scalability is the planned ability to grow capacity to handle larger workloads; cloud platforms provide several ways to scale resources as needs increase.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BDescribes automatic, near-instant outward and inward scaling that tracks moment-to-moment demand, not the deliberate, budgeted capacity growth scheduled over successive years.
  • CNames temporarily overflowing on-premises workloads into a public cloud at peak, which differs from steadily enlarging owned capacity on a recurring yearly schedule.
  • DRefers to metering resource consumption for billing and transparency, which has nothing to do with planning long-term capacity growth for a rising workload.
Scalability distinguished from elasticity — 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Cloud-computing concepts

A retailer runs its store on a private cloud that comfortably handles normal traffic, but on Black Friday it automatically pushes overflow workload to a public cloud and stops using it once the rush ends. This hybrid-cloud technique is called:

Answer
Correct answerD · Cloud bursting

NIST cites cloud bursting for load balancing between clouds; Microsoft describes shifting workloads from on-premises to the public cloud during periods of high demand.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ADescribes a provider serving multiple tenants from shared hardware, not one company temporarily offloading its own peak overflow to a separate public cloud.
  • BNames infrastructure shared by organizations with common concerns such as policy or compliance, not the temporary overflow of a single firm's peak workload to a public cloud.
  • CRefers to metering consumed resources for billing transparency, which does not capture the act of bursting excess load from private to public infrastructure.
Cloud bursting within a hybrid deployment — 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Cloud-computing concepts

A company wants employees to sign in from any laptop or tablet and receive a full Windows desktop and apps that actually run on virtual machines hosted in Microsoft's cloud, with no desktop infrastructure to maintain on-site. Which solution fits?

Answer
Correct answerB · Cloud-hosted VDI

Azure Virtual Desktop is a desktop and app virtualization service that runs on Azure, delivering full desktops or individual apps to users on any device.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AKeeps copies of files consistent across a user's devices, but it does not deliver a remote Windows desktop and applications running on cloud-hosted virtual machines.
  • CPackages an app with its dependencies to share the host OS kernel locally, which does not provide users a full remote Windows desktop streamed from cloud servers.
  • DConfigures how a single VM reaches the physical LAN, an unrelated networking detail that does not deliver hosted desktops to remote users from the cloud.
Cloud-based virtual desktop infrastructure — 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Cloud-computing concepts

For regulatory control, a bank keeps its virtual desktops on servers in its own data center and runs its own connection brokers and gateways. Compared with a cloud desktop service, the DEFINING characteristic of this on-premises VDI is that:

Answer
Correct answerC · The organization owns and hosts the desktop infrastructure on-site

On-premises VDI means the organization itself runs the hosting servers, brokers, and gateways locally, whereas a cloud service like Azure Virtual Desktop runs without on-site gateway servers.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AIncorrect because virtual desktops, whether on-premises or cloud-hosted, are reachable over the network from heterogeneous clients; remote access is not what distinguishes them.
  • BDescribes a cloud measured-service billing trait, not the hallmark of self-hosted on-premises VDI where the organization owns and operates the hardware itself.
  • DConflates desktop virtualization with OS-level containerization; VDI desktops are full virtual machines with their own guest OS, not kernel-sharing containers.
On-premises VDI contrasted with cloud DaaS — 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Cloud-computing concepts

A consultant edits a proposal on her office PC, and minutes later the updated file is already current on her phone and home laptop without her emailing it to herself. The cloud capability responsible is:

Answer
Correct answerA · File synchronization

OneDrive syncs files between your computer and the cloud so changes propagate automatically to your other devices; Google Drive likewise syncs edits automatically across surfaces.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BDescribes compute capacity scaling out and in with demand, which has nothing to do with keeping one user's documents consistent across her multiple personal devices.
  • CRefers to the provider serving many tenants from shared hardware, not to mirroring a single user's files automatically across her own client devices.
  • DCaptures a VM's point-in-time state for rollback on one host, not the continuous propagation of file changes to a user's other client devices.
Cloud file storage and synchronization services — 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Cloud-computing concepts

Field technicians reach the same SaaS ticketing system over the internet from Android phones, Windows laptops, and iPads using standard browsers and clients. Which essential cloud characteristic is demonstrated?

Answer
Correct answerB · Broad network access

NIST defines capabilities available over the network and accessed through standard mechanisms that promote use by heterogeneous thin or thick client platforms.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AConcerns the provider dynamically sharing and reassigning physical resources among many tenants, not many device types simply connecting to the same service over the network.
  • CDescribes metering and reporting of consumption for billing transparency, which is not what is shown when varied client devices connect to the service.
  • DLets a consumer provision capabilities automatically without human interaction, which is unrelated to many different device types reaching an already-running service.
Broad network access from heterogeneous clients — 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Cloud-computing concepts

In a public cloud, one physical server simultaneously runs VMs for many unrelated customers, and the provider dynamically assigns and reassigns memory and CPU among them based on demand, with customers unaware of each other. This is:

Answer
Correct answerD · Resource pooling

NIST defines resources pooled to serve multiple consumers with a multi-tenant model, dynamically assigned and reassigned; AWS calls multi-tenancy multiple workloads in a shared environment.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ADescribes overflowing peak workload from a private cloud into a public cloud, not multiple tenants concurrently sharing and being reassigned the same provider hardware.
  • BIs a virtual-machine adapter mode that places a VM on the physical LAN, an unrelated networking detail that does not describe many tenants sharing physical resources.
  • CFocuses on one consumer's capacity automatically growing and shrinking with demand, not on multiple tenants sharing and being dynamically reassigned the same physical resources.
Resource pooling and multi-tenancy — 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Cloud-computing concepts

For licensing-compliance and isolation reasons, a firm requires that its cloud instances run on a physical server used by no other customer. Which option meets this need?

Answer
Correct answerA · A dedicated host

An EC2 Dedicated Host is a physical server fully dedicated to your use, providing the single-tenant isolation and per-socket/per-core licensing the firm requires.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BPlaces the workload on hardware dynamically shared with other tenants, the opposite of the firm's requirement for a physical server used by no other customer.
  • CDescribes automatic capacity scaling with demand and says nothing about whether the underlying physical server is shared with or isolated from other customers.
  • DConcerns reaching the service from many client devices over the network, not whether the compute runs on shared or single-tenant physical hardware.
Dedicated versus shared resources — 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.2 Client-side virtualization

A developer needs to pack a microservice and its dependencies into a lightweight unit that shares the host operating system's kernel instead of bundling a full guest OS. What should they use?

Answer
Correct answerC · A container

Containers virtualize the operating system and share the host OS kernel as isolated user-space processes; unlike a VM, a container does not require a guest OS.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ARuns its own complete guest operating system on virtualized hardware through a hypervisor, making it heavier and not the kernel-sharing unit the developer asked for.
  • BCaptures a virtual machine's point-in-time state for rollback and is not a packaging unit for shipping an application together with its dependencies.
  • DIs a single-tenant physical server used for isolation and licensing, not a lightweight application package that shares the host operating system's kernel.
Containers share the host OS kernel — 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Client-side virtualization

A virtualization admin is hardening a bare-metal hypervisor host. Which action BEST follows recommended hypervisor security practice?

Answer
Correct answerB · Disable unneeded services and keep the hypervisor patched

NIST advises disabling unneeded hypervisor services and installing updates; Microsoft adds minimizing attack surface and keeping the host current with security updates.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AReverses the guidance, because convenience features like shared clipboard and file sharing should be disabled since they create attack vectors between guest VMs.
  • CViolates least privilege, since access to the virtualization management system must be restricted to authorized administrators because it controls every guest VM.
  • DIs false, because anyone who can reboot the host might alter hypervisor security settings, so physical access controls are still required for bare-metal hypervisors.
Hypervisor security requirements — 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Client-side virtualization

An IT team wants to run a legacy app in an isolated virtual environment that is delivered to users and kept separate from the underlying operating system, so it does not conflict with locally installed software. This approach is:

Answer
Correct answerD · Application virtualization

Application virtualization provides a virtual implementation of the API an app expects; Microsoft's MSIX app attach separates applications and their state from the operating system.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AIs a virtual-machine adapter mode that connects a VM to the physical LAN, which has nothing to do with isolating an application from the host operating system.
  • BDescribes overflowing peak workload from private to public cloud, not delivering a single application in an isolated environment separate from the local OS.
  • CRefers to compute capacity automatically scaling out and in with demand, which does not describe isolating and delivering an individual application to users.
Application virtualization and sandboxing — 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Client-side virtualization

A macOS user must run a Windows-only application, so using a hypervisor they install a complete Windows guest OS inside a VM on their Mac. Using virtualization to run an operating system and apps built for a different platform on the host is known as:

Answer
Correct answerC · Cross-platform virtualization

Full virtualization runs a complete guest OS on virtual hardware, so a Windows VM can run on a Mac host, letting software built for one platform run on another.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AKeeps a user's files consistent across devices in the cloud, which is unrelated to running an operating system built for a different platform on the host.
  • BDescribes a provider sharing and reassigning physical resources among many tenants, not running another platform's full operating system on a single host machine.
  • DSaves a virtual machine's state at a point in time for rollback and is not the act of running another platform's operating system on the host.
Cross-platform virtualization — 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Client-side virtualization

On a laptop, a VM must reach the internet but should NOT appear as a separate device with its own address on the office LAN; instead it should share the host's network identity through a private internal address. Which VM network mode is this?

Answer
Correct answerB · NAT

With NAT the VM has no address on the external network and shares the host's single network identity via a private internal subnet, reaching the internet through translation.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AConnects the VM through the host's adapter so it gets its own IP on the physical LAN and appears as a separate device, the opposite of hiding behind the host.
  • CCreates an isolated network limited to the host and its VMs with no path off the machine, so it cannot meet the requirement to reach external internet sites.
  • DIs a saved point-in-time virtual-machine state used for rollback and is not a network configuration mode for connecting a VM at all.
VM NAT networking mode — 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Client-side virtualization

A security researcher wants several VMs that can talk to each other and to the host, but must be completely isolated from the physical network and the internet for safe malware analysis. Which adapter mode fits BEST?

Answer
Correct answerA · Host-only

Host-only creates a network completely contained within the host computer, connecting the host and its VMs while keeping them off the physical network and internet.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BPuts each VM directly on the physical LAN with its own routable IP, exposing the malware lab to the production network and the internet, which violates the isolation requirement.
  • CLets the VMs reach the internet through the host's translated connection, so the environment is not fully isolated as required for safe malware analysis.
  • DIs a cloud characteristic about sharing provider hardware among tenants, not a virtual-machine network adapter mode for isolating lab VMs from outside networks.
VM host-only (isolated) networking — 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Client-side virtualization

Before applying a risky patch to a test VM, an admin captures the VM's current state and data so they can instantly roll back if the update fails. Best-practice notes warn this captured state is NOT a substitute for backups. What did the admin create?

Answer
Correct answerB · A snapshot

A snapshot preserves the state and data of a VM at a specific point in time for rollback, and VMware warns snapshots should not be considered a backup.

Why the other options are wrong
  • APackages an application and its dependencies to run sharing the host kernel; it is not a point-in-time capture of a running VM's state used to revert after a failed change.
  • CIs a single-tenant physical server reserved for one customer's instances, not a captured point-in-time VM state that an admin can revert to after a bad patch.
  • DConfigures how the VM connects to the physical LAN and stores nothing about the machine's state, so it cannot be used to roll back a failed update.
Virtual-machine snapshots — 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A business runs its application servers on rented IaaS virtual machines. A critical vulnerability is announced in the guest Linux operating system those VMs run. Under the cloud shared responsibility model, who must apply the patch?

Answer
Correct answerB · The customer, who manages the guest operating system including its updates and security patches.

AWS and Azure both place guest-OS patching on the customer in IaaS, since the customer controls the operating system, applications, and configuration of each VM.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AIn IaaS the provider secures only the hypervisor and the hardware beneath it; the guest OS is explicitly handed to the customer to maintain and patch.
  • CNo automatic guest patching is guaranteed in IaaS; leaving the OS unpatched is a customer failure, not a feature of the service model.
  • DAuditors verify controls but do not operate or patch customer workloads; guest-OS maintenance remains a direct customer responsibility in IaaS.
Shared responsibility: customer patches guest OS in IaaS · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A company uses a vendor's SaaS CRM application accessed entirely through a web browser. A flaw is discovered in the application's own code. In the shared responsibility model, who is responsible for fixing and deploying the patched application?

Answer
Correct answerC · The cloud provider, which manages and patches the application.

In SaaS the provider manages the full stack through application delivery, so application availability, integrity, and patching are the provider's responsibility, not the customer's.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ASaaS consumers cannot access or rebuild the provider's application code; control is limited to user-level settings, not the application stack itself.
  • BNo separate partner is required; the SaaS provider operates and patches the application itself as part of delivering the managed service.
  • DResponsibility is layered, not an even split; for SaaS the application layer is provider-managed while the customer retains data, identity, and endpoints.
Shared responsibility: provider patches the app in SaaS · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A security architect is mapping duties across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS deployments. She wants to identify the one category that the customer must always secure no matter which service model is chosen. Which is it?

Answer
Correct answerD · The organization's data and identities.

For all cloud deployment types the customer owns its data and identities, retaining responsibility for data classification, encryption decisions, accounts, and access management.

Why the other options are wrong
  • APhysical hosts and facilities are provider-managed in every cloud service model; customers never have physical access to that infrastructure.
  • BThe hypervisor is managed by the provider in all service models; customers do not configure or patch the virtualization layer themselves.
  • CPhysical networking within the datacenter is owned and operated by the provider in every model; customers cannot reach that hardware.
Data and identities always remain a customer responsibility · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

During a cloud risk review, a technician needs to identify a control that the cloud provider owns in every service model (IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS) and that no customer ever has to implement. Which control fits?

Answer
Correct answerA · Physical security of the datacenter and its hosts.

The provider secures the physical datacenter, physical hosts, and physical network in IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS, because only the provider can physically access that hardware.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BAccount management and access controls are customer responsibilities in all models; the provider does not create or govern the customer's user identities.
  • CData classification and encryption decisions stay with the customer regardless of model; the provider supplies tools but does not own the data.
  • DProtecting client devices and endpoints is a customer responsibility; the provider does not manage the consumer's accessing hardware in any model.
Provider always owns physical datacenter/host security · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A company wants employees to log in to full Windows desktops that run in a provider's cloud and stream to any device, with the provider operating the backend gateway and broker infrastructure rather than the company hosting its own servers. Which offering best matches this?

Answer
Correct answerC · Desktop as a Service (DaaS), a cloud-hosted desktop virtualization service.

DaaS delivers desktops from the cloud with the provider managing the supporting infrastructure; Azure Virtual Desktop is a desktop and app virtualization service that runs on Azure.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA local Type 2 hypervisor runs the desktop on the user's own hardware, not in a provider-managed cloud streamed to many devices, so it is not cloud desktop delivery.
  • BSelf-hosted on-premises VDI means the organization owns and manages the backend infrastructure, which is the opposite of a provider-operated cloud desktop service.
  • DApplication virtualization delivers individual apps, not full desktops; the scenario describes complete cloud desktops, which is the defining trait of DaaS.
DaaS delivers cloud-hosted desktops with provider-managed backend · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

An analyst on a Windows 11 Pro workstation must open a suspicious email attachment to inspect it, but wants a throwaway isolated environment that leaves nothing behind on the host after it closes. Which built-in feature is the best fit?

Answer
Correct answerB · Windows Sandbox, a disposable isolated environment.

Windows Sandbox is a lightweight isolated desktop using hypervisor-based virtualization; it is temporary, so closing it deletes all software, files, and state.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AExecuting untrusted files on the host with protection disabled risks infecting the real machine; it provides no isolation and no clean discard of changes.
  • CA separate user account still shares the same operating system kernel and disk, so malware can persist and affect the host beyond that profile.
  • DSafe Mode merely limits loaded drivers; it runs the same installed OS and offers no disposable container or guaranteed cleanup of malicious changes.
Windows Sandbox gives a disposable isolated VM for untrusted files · 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

A team consolidates several workloads of differing trust levels onto one physical server using a Type 1 hypervisor. A key security requirement is that if one guest VM is compromised, the attacker should not be able to reach the other guests. Which hypervisor property is being relied upon?

Answer
Correct answerD · VM isolation enforced by the hypervisor.

A Type 1 hypervisor delivers robust isolation, running each guest in a separate partition so a compromise of one VM is contained and does not automatically reach others.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AResource pooling governs how capacity is shared, not security separation; it does not define the protective boundary that keeps compromised guests apart.
  • BSnapshots aid rollback and recovery but provide no runtime separation; they do not contain an attacker who has compromised a running guest.
  • COvercommitment is a capacity-efficiency technique, not a security control; assigning more resources than exist does nothing to isolate compromised guests.
Hypervisor isolation is the security boundary between guest VMs · 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

A developer must test the same application on Windows 10, Windows Server, and a Linux distribution, but has only one physical workstation. Which purpose of client-side virtualization directly solves this?

Answer
Correct answerA · Running applications for multiple operating systems on a single computer.

Full virtualization lets one machine host several guest operating systems at once, so the developer can run and test the app across Windows and Linux on one workstation.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BPer-use metering is a cloud billing characteristic, not the reason client-side virtualization enables multi-OS testing on a single local computer.
  • CBroad network access describes cloud reachability across devices; it does not explain hosting several different operating systems locally for testing.
  • DRapid elasticity is a cloud scaling concept; the scenario is about hosting multiple fixed OS environments at once on one workstation, not autoscaling.
Client virtualization purpose: run multiple OSes for app testing · 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

A host has 32 GB of physical RAM, yet an administrator powers on virtual machines configured for 48 GB total because the hypervisor allocates physical memory only when guests actually use it. What is this practice called, and what is the main risk?

Answer
Correct answerC · Memory overcommitment; if guests demand their full allocations the host can run out of memory.

With overcommitment the kernel may allocate less physical memory than requested, but heavy simultaneous demand can trigger heavy swapping or an out-of-memory condition.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AResource pooling describes multi-tenant capacity sharing, not assigning more memory than exists; the stated risk about region visibility is irrelevant to the scenario.
  • BElasticity refers to scaling capacity with demand, not over-assigning fixed memory; the described auto-shrink risk does not match memory over-assignment.
  • DMeasured service is a cloud metering characteristic, not memory over-assignment; billing accuracy is not the hazard created by exceeding physical RAM.
Memory overcommit assigns more RAM than physical; risk is OOM/swap · 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

On a virtualization host, the total number of vCPUs assigned to powered-on VMs greatly exceeds the host's physical CPU cores. During peak load, users report sluggish VMs and monitoring shows high CPU 'ready' time. What is the most likely cause?

Answer
Correct answerB · vCPU overprovisioning, so VMs wait for physical CPU time.

When allocated vCPUs far exceed physical cores, guests contend for cycles and queue, producing elevated CPU ready time and degraded responsiveness under load.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ANetwork saturation affects I/O throughput, not CPU ready time; high ready time specifically reflects vCPUs queuing for scarce physical processor cycles.
  • CBallooning reclaims memory and pressures RAM, not CPU scheduling; CPU ready time tracks contention for physical cores, not memory reclamation activity.
  • DOld storage drivers slow disk I/O, not CPU scheduling; ready time measures time vCPUs spend waiting for physical CPU, unrelated to disk driver versions.
Too many vCPUs vs physical cores causes CPU-ready contention · 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

A technician benchmarks a workload inside a VM and finds it runs somewhat slower than the same workload on identical bare-metal hardware. When sizing the VM's resource requirements, what best explains this expected gap?

Answer
Correct answerD · Virtualization adds overhead because the hypervisor converts host resources for guests.

vCPUs run as host threads and the hypervisor consumes a portion of resources converting them, so a guest cannot quite match the host's native efficiency.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AVMs are not wired to the host by a USB cable; the performance gap comes from virtualization overhead, not any external physical cabling between guest and host.
  • BModern hypervisors use hardware-assisted virtualization and do not emulate every instruction; the claim of a guaranteed fifty-percent loss is inaccurate.
  • CGuests can be assigned multiple vCPUs and run multi-threaded work; there is no inherent single-core cap, so this does not explain the modest slowdown.
Virtualization overhead makes VMs run slightly slower than bare metal · 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

An organization wants to move an aging line-of-business application off its on-premises servers and into the cloud as quickly as possible, with minimal effort and no changes to the application code. Which migration approach matches this goal?

Answer
Correct answerA · Rehost, also called lift and shift.

Rehosting moves applications to the cloud without making changes to them; it is the fastest path with the lowest short-term effort, ideal for tight timelines.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BRefactoring redesigns the application and is the most complex, time-consuming strategy, which contradicts the goal of moving quickly with no code changes.
  • CRetiring decommissions an unneeded application; here the business wants to keep and run the app in the cloud, so retiring does not fit.
  • DRepurchasing swaps the app for a SaaS alternative rather than moving the existing application unchanged, so it does not satisfy a no-changes lift and shift.
Rehost (lift and shift) moves apps to cloud with no changes · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A startup with unpredictable demand wants a cloud cost model where it pays only for the compute it actually consumes, with no upfront purchase and no long-term contract, similar to paying a utility bill. Which billing model is this?

Answer
Correct answerC · Pay-as-you-go pricing.

Pay-as-you-go charges only for the individual services used, for as long as they are used, with no long-term contracts, much like billing for water or electricity.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA prepaid annual reservation requires committing and paying upfront, which is the opposite of paying only for what is consumed with no long-term contract.
  • BA one-time perpetual license is a capital purchase decoupled from usage, unlike a consumption-based model that bills for resources as they are used.
  • DA flat unlimited fee does not vary with consumption, whereas the scenario specifically wants to pay only for the resources actually used.
Pay-as-you-go bills only for consumed resources (measured service) · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A cloud provider's portal shows each customer exactly how much storage, processing, and bandwidth they used this month, and uses those same metrics to calculate the invoice. Which essential cloud characteristic does this represent?

Answer
Correct answerB · Measured service.

Measured service uses a metering capability so usage can be monitored, controlled, and reported, providing transparency for both the provider and the consumer.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AOn-demand self-service means consumers provision resources themselves without human interaction; it does not describe metering and reporting of usage for billing.
  • CResource pooling describes serving many tenants from shared, dynamically assigned capacity; the metering and reporting of usage is measured service, not pooling.
  • DRapid elasticity is about scaling capacity quickly with demand, not about metering and reporting usage, which is the role of measured service.
Measured service = metering that monitors and reports usage · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A bank must keep its cloud infrastructure provisioned for the exclusive use of its own single organization to satisfy strict regulatory and data-control requirements, even if it costs more than sharing infrastructure with other tenants. Which deployment model should it choose?

Answer
Correct answerD · Private cloud.

A private cloud is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization, matching the bank's need for isolated, dedicated infrastructure under tight regulatory control.

Why the other options are wrong
  • APublic cloud is provisioned for open use by the general public and is multi-tenant, which is the opposite of exclusive single-organization use the bank requires.
  • BA community cloud is shared by several organizations with common concerns, so it is not exclusive to one organization as the bank's requirement demands.
  • CHybrid combines two or more distinct cloud types; it is not necessary merely to obtain exclusive single-organization infrastructure, which private cloud already provides.
Private cloud = infrastructure exclusive to one organization · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

An administrator needs to perform hardware maintenance on a virtualization host but cannot interrupt the running virtual machines on it. Which capability lets the running VMs be moved to another host with no perceived downtime?

Answer
Correct answerA · Live migration.

Live migration transparently moves running virtual machines from one host to another without perceived downtime, allowing a host to be drained before maintenance.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BA snapshot only captures point-in-time state for rollback; it does not transfer a running VM to another host or keep it serving users during maintenance.
  • CCold cloning requires the source VM to be powered off and produces a copy, so it cannot move a running workload without downtime as the scenario demands.
  • DAdjusting overcommit changes memory allocation on one host; it does not transfer running VMs to another host or provide a maintenance evacuation path.
Live migration moves running VMs between hosts without downtime · 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

An administrator must rapidly provision 30 identical Windows web servers that all start with the same operating system, patches, and software preinstalled, so each new VM is ready to use without manual setup. What should the administrator create once and deploy from?

Answer
Correct answerC · A VM template (master image).

A template is a primary copy of a virtual machine used to create ready-for-use VMs; one image can launch many instances that share the same configuration.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA snapshot only records point-in-time changes against one VM's own disk for rollback; it cannot be deployed as 30 separate independent ready-to-run virtual machines.
  • BInstalling each server by hand defeats the goal of rapid consistent provisioning and is exactly the slow manual process a reusable master image is meant to eliminate.
  • DA bridged adapter only connects a VM to the physical network for traffic; it does not clone or distribute an operating system, applications, or patches to other machines.
VM template/master image deploys many identical ready-to-use VMs · 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A company stores large media files in a public cloud and notices its bill rises sharply whenever users download those files out to the internet, while uploading new files into the cloud adds no transfer charge. Which cloud cost factor is responsible?

Answer
Correct answerB · Egress (outbound data transfer) charges for data leaving the cloud.

Providers bill outbound data transfer to the internet while inbound transfer is free, so heavy downloads of files out of the cloud increase the bill.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis reverses how providers bill transfer; inbound data is generally free, so blaming upload charges contradicts a scenario where downloads, not uploads, drive the rising cost.
  • CInstance runtime is billed on uptime, not on bytes moved; it cannot explain a bill that tracks download volume while uploads of the same data remain free.
  • DStored-capacity charges depend on space used at rest, not on transfer direction; they do not rise specifically when users download files out to the public internet.
Cloud egress (data transfer out) is charged while ingress is free · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A company runs a baseline of virtual machines that stay powered on continuously all year. To cut costs versus standard hourly rates, it agrees to a one-year commitment of consistent usage in exchange for a large discount. Which pricing model is this?

Answer
Correct answerD · Reserved instances (a committed-use discount).

Committing to a one-year or three-year term of consistent usage earns a large discount, reducing resource costs by up to about 72% from pay-as-you-go prices.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AOn-demand charges full hourly rates with no commitment and therefore gives no committed-term discount; calling it a one-year commitment contradicts its no-commitment nature.
  • BSpot pricing sells interruptible spare capacity that can be reclaimed at any time; it is not a guaranteed one-year commitment suited to steady always-on baseline servers.
  • CA perpetual license is a one-time capital purchase of software or hardware; it is not a cloud usage-commitment discount and wrongly conflates ownership with reserved consumption pricing.
Reserved/committed-use pricing discounts steady workloads vs on-demand · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A company keeps user accounts in its on-premises Active Directory but is adopting cloud services. It wants employees to use one set of credentials that works for both on-premises applications and cloud resources, by synchronizing the directory to the cloud. What is this approach called?

Answer
Correct answerA · Hybrid identity (a common identity across on-premises and cloud).

Synchronizing on-premises directories to the cloud creates a common user identity for authentication and authorization to resources both on-premises and in the cloud.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BAir-gapping deliberately disconnects a system from networks, which would prevent any synchronization or cloud authentication, the opposite of giving users one identity across both environments.
  • CMulti-tenancy describes a provider sharing pooled infrastructure among many separate customers; it does not unify one organization's on-premises and cloud user credentials at all.
  • DTrunking switches joins network segments at the data-link layer and has nothing to do with synchronizing directory user accounts between on-premises and cloud identity systems.
Hybrid identity gives one common identity across on-prem and cloud · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A developer packages an application together with all of its libraries and dependencies into a lightweight unit, then wants assurance it will run the same way on a laptop, on a data-center server, and in the cloud without 'works on my machine' problems. Which technology provides this consistent portability?

Answer
Correct answerC · A container.

A container is lightweight and contains everything needed to run the application, so anyone you share it with gets the same container that runs the same way across environments.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA Type 1 hypervisor runs full virtual machines on bare metal and is not what packages an application with its dependencies into one portable unit that runs identically everywhere.
  • BCopying files into a partition does not carry the runtime environment; differences in the host operating system and installed libraries still cause inconsistent behavior across machines.
  • DA VPN only encrypts network traffic between endpoints; it neither packages an application with its dependencies nor guarantees consistent execution across different host environments.
Containers package app plus dependencies for consistent portability · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

A technician tries to enable the Hyper-V role on a 64-bit Windows 11 Pro PC, but it will not turn on. Besides hardware-assisted virtualization being enabled in firmware, Hyper-V requires a specific processor memory-virtualization capability. Which CPU feature is required?

Answer
Correct answerB · Second Level Address Translation (SLAT).

Hyper-V requires a 64-bit processor with second level address translation, the CPU feature that efficiently maps each guest's memory to physical host memory for the hypervisor.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA TPM provides cryptographic key storage and measured boot, not memory address translation; it is not the processor feature Hyper-V requires in order to enable the hypervisor.
  • CHyper-threading lets one core present two logical processors for throughput; it is not required for Hyper-V and is unrelated to the guest-to-physical memory translation the role needs.
  • DAn integrated GPU accelerates graphics, not memory address translation; Hyper-V's requirement is a CPU feature for mapping memory, not any graphics capability at all.
Hyper-V requires a 64-bit CPU with SLAT · 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

Before a risky upgrade, an admin takes a VM snapshot and then deletes the company's separate nightly backups to save space, assuming the snapshot now serves as the backup. Why is deleting the backups a mistake?

Answer
Correct answerD · Because a snapshot is a point-in-time state that depends on the original disk and is not a substitute for a backup.

A snapshot only logs changes against the base disk for rollback; if the base disk is lost, the snapshot alone cannot restore the VM, so separate backups remain essential.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis is backwards; a snapshot is not an independent copy and does not live on separate storage, so it cannot replace the protection that the deleted backups provided.
  • BSnapshots can be taken on running, suspended, or powered-off VMs, so the claim is incorrect; the real problem is relying on a snapshot in place of true backups.
  • CSnapshots are stored locally alongside the VM and are not auto-uploaded to a cloud provider; billing is not the issue, and this misstates how snapshots actually work.
A snapshot is not a backup; keep separate backups · 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.2 Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization

An engineer right-clicks a fully configured virtual machine and selects an option that produces a brand-new, separate virtual machine having the same virtual hardware and installed software as that existing one. What operation did the engineer perform?

Answer
Correct answerA · Cloning the virtual machine.

Cloning creates a virtual machine that is a copy of the original, configured with the same virtual hardware, installed software, and other properties as the source VM.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BLive migration relocates one running VM between hosts for maintenance without downtime; it does not produce a second, separate copy of the machine as the scenario describes.
  • CA checkpoint or snapshot captures point-in-time state of the same VM for reverting; it does not create a new standalone VM running beside the original as described.
  • DOvercommitment only assigns more virtual resources than the host physically has; it is a capacity-efficiency technique and never duplicates a virtual machine into a second copy.
Cloning makes a copy of an existing VM (full or linked) · 220-1201 Obj 4.2
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A startup with no data center wants to rent computing from infrastructure that is provisioned for open use by the general public and operated on the provider's own premises, paying only for what it uses. Which cloud deployment model fits?

Answer
Correct answerC · Public cloud.

A public cloud is provisioned for open use by the general public and exists on the premises of the cloud provider, matching a startup renting pay-as-you-go resources.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA private cloud is dedicated to one organization, the opposite of infrastructure open to the general public; the description directly contradicts the exclusive nature of private cloud.
  • BA community cloud serves a specific group of organizations with shared concerns, not the open general public, so it does not match a provider open to everyone.
  • DAn on-premises data center requires owning and housing hardware in your own facility; it is neither rented nor open to the general public, contradicting the scenario.
Public cloud = infrastructure provisioned for open use by the general public · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A CFO notes that moving to the cloud let the company stop buying and depreciating its own servers and data centers, instead paying month to month only for the resources it actually consumes. Which financial benefit of cloud computing does this describe?

Answer
Correct answerB · Trading fixed capital expenses for variable operating expenses.

The cloud lets you trade fixed expenses such as data centers and physical servers for variable expenses, paying only for IT as you consume it.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ACloud billing relies on metering usage, not a fixed capital purchase; this directly contradicts the scenario where the company pays monthly only for what it consumes.
  • CPay-per-use is not automatically cheaper for every workload; very steady, heavy usage can cost more than owning, so a universal savings guarantee is inaccurate.
  • DShifting to operating expense does not abolish capacity planning, and providers do have finite capacity; the claim overstates and misrepresents the financial benefit being described.
Cloud trades fixed capex for variable opex (pay per use) · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

In a Docker workflow, a developer builds a read-only artifact from a Dockerfile, pushes it to a registry, and later pulls it to start running workloads. What is the relationship between that stored read-only artifact and the running workload it starts?

Answer
Correct answerD · The artifact is a read-only image (a template); the running workload is a container, an instance of that image.

An image is a read-only template for creating containers and is stored in a registry, and a container is a runnable instance launched from that image.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis inverts the definitions; the registry stores the read-only image, and starting it produces the running instance, not the other way around as the option states.
  • BAn image and a container are distinct objects; the image is a static template while the container is its live running instance, so they are not interchangeable terms.
  • CContainers share the host operating system kernel and are not full VM disks with their own guest kernel, so describing the image as a bootable VM disk is incorrect.
Container image is a read-only template; a container is its running instance · 220-1201 Obj 4.1
4.1 Summarize cloud-computing concepts

A software team wants to deploy its own custom application code to the cloud and have the provider supply and manage the runtime, operating system, and servers underneath, so the team only has to manage the application it builds. Which cloud service model best meets this?

Answer
Correct answerA · Platform as a Service (PaaS).

PaaS removes the need to manage the underlying infrastructure such as hardware and operating systems, letting the team focus on deploying and managing its own applications.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BIaaS still makes the customer manage the operating systems and runtime, which contradicts the team's goal of having the provider manage everything beneath the application.
  • CSaaS delivers a complete vendor-built application for end users; it provides no place for the team to deploy its own custom code, so it does not fit this need.
  • DA local Type 2 hypervisor is on-workstation virtualization that the team fully manages itself; it is not a cloud service that offloads the platform to a provider.
PaaS: provider manages OS/runtime while the customer deploys its own app · 220-1201 Obj 4.1

Want all domains under exam conditions? Take a full 90-question mock →

Ad slot · in-content rectangle (336×280 / responsive)Below the quiz card, inside the article body — well clear of answer buttons

About this domain

Domain 4, Virtualization and Cloud Computing, is 11% of A+ Core 1 (220-1201) — the smallest domain, but reliably tested. It covers cloud service and deployment models, the essential characteristics of cloud, and client-side virtualization with hypervisors and virtual machines. Questions frequently ask you to classify a scenario as IaaS, PaaS, or SaaS, or to identify a cloud characteristic.

Anchor your studying in the NIST model: the three service models, the deployment models (public, private, hybrid, community), and the five essential characteristics — on-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and measured service — plus the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors.

What Domain 4 covers

Domain 4 quick glossary

The terms that show up most on Domain 4 questions — one line each.

IaaSCloud model providing virtual machines, storage, and networking you manage.
PaaSCloud model providing a managed platform to build and run applications.
SaaSCloud model delivering finished software over the web.
HypervisorSoftware that creates and runs virtual machines on a host.
Type 1 hypervisorRuns directly on hardware (bare-metal) for production workloads.
Rapid elasticityAbility to scale resources up or down quickly with demand.
Measured serviceCloud usage is metered so you pay only for what you consume.
VDIVirtual Desktop Infrastructure — desktops hosted and streamed from servers.

Keep going

Practice the other domains, or go deeper with the full study materials.