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CompTIA Network+ Domain 1: Networking Concepts

23% of the N10-009 exam
Practice — Domain 1
1.8 Subnetting (CIDR, VLSM)

You must subnet 192.168.10.0/24 so that each subnet supports at least 50 usable hosts, while wasting as few addresses per subnet as possible. Which subnet mask should you use?

Answer
Correct answerB · /26 (255.255.255.192)

6 host bits → 2⁶−2 = 62 usable hosts. The smallest block that still fits 50, so it wastes the least.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AGives 2⁷−2 = 126 usable hosts. It works, but wastes more than half the addresses — not the tightest fit.
  • C5 host bits → 2⁵−2 = 30 usable. Fewer than the 50 required, so it fails the requirement.
  • D254 usable hosts — the whole network as one subnet. Far more than needed, wastes the most.
Usable hosts = 2ⁿ − 2 (network + broadcast reserved). N10-009 Obj 1.8.
1.1 OSI model

At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?

Answer
Correct answerC · Layer 4 — Transport

TCP provides connection-oriented, reliable segment delivery with ports — the defining job of Layer 4.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ALayer 2 handles framing and MAC addressing (e.g. Ethernet switches), not end-to-end segment delivery.
  • BLayer 3 is IP routing and logical addressing. TCP rides on top of IP — it is not the network layer.
  • DLayer 7 is where HTTP and DNS live. They USE TCP, but TCP itself is one layer below.
OSI Layer 4 = Transport (TCP/UDP, ports, segments). N10-009 Obj 1.1.
1.4 Ports and protocols

An administrator needs a secure, encrypted command-line session to a remote Linux server. Which port and protocol should be used?

Answer
Correct answerA · TCP 22 — SSH

SSH encrypts the entire session and is the standard for secure remote CLI access on TCP 22.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BTelnet gives a remote CLI but sends everything, including credentials, in cleartext. Never use it for secure access.
  • CRDP is a graphical remote-desktop protocol for Windows, not a Linux command-line shell.
  • DHTTPS is encrypted web traffic, not an interactive shell. Wrong protocol for CLI access.
SSH = TCP 22, encrypted remote shell. N10-009 Obj 1.4.
1.1 Devices and the OSI model

A router forwards traffic between networks based on which type of address, and at which OSI layer does it primarily operate?

Answer
Correct answerB · IP address, at Layer 3

Routers use logical IP addresses to forward packets between networks — the role of Layer 3.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AForwarding by MAC address at Layer 2 describes a switch, not a router.
  • CPort numbers belong to the Transport layer (TCP/UDP). Routers don't forward based on ports.
  • DLayer 7 is application protocols. A router doesn't read application data to forward packets.
Routers operate at Layer 3 using IP addresses. N10-009 Obj 1.1.
1.4 DNS record types

Which DNS record type maps a hostname to an IPv4 address?

Answer
Correct answerA · A record

An A (Address) record maps a hostname to a 32-bit IPv4 address.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BAAAA maps a hostname to an IPv6 address, not IPv4. Easy to confuse — note the four A's.
  • CMX identifies the mail server for a domain, not a host's IP address.
  • DCNAME is an alias pointing one name to another name, not directly to an IP.
A = IPv4 host record; AAAA = IPv6. N10-009 Obj 1.4.
1.1 TCP vs UDP

A real-time VoIP application needs low latency and can tolerate the occasional lost packet. Which transport protocol best fits, and why?

Answer
Correct answerB · UDP — connectionless, low overhead

UDP skips handshakes and retransmission, giving the low latency real-time media needs. A dropped packet is better than a late one.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATCP's retransmissions and acknowledgements add delay, which hurts real-time voice. Reliability isn't worth the latency here.
  • CICMP is for diagnostics and error messages (ping), not for carrying application data streams.
  • DARP resolves IP-to-MAC on the local link. It isn't a transport protocol for application traffic.
UDP = connectionless, low-overhead transport for real-time media. N10-009 Obj 1.1.
1.7 IPv4 addressing (RFC 1918)

Which of the following is a private IPv4 address as defined by RFC 1918?

Answer
Correct answerB · 172.16.5.10

172.16.0.0–172.31.255.255 (172.16.0.0/12) is a private range reserved by RFC 1918.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis is a public, internet-routable address (a well-known public DNS resolver), not RFC 1918 private space.
  • C169.254.0.0/16 is link-local (APIPA — Microsoft's name for the RFC 3927 mechanism), self-assigned when DHCP fails. Reserved, but not RFC 1918 private.
  • DThis falls in public, internet-routable space, not a private range.
RFC 1918 private ranges: 10/8, 172.16/12, 192.168/16. N10-009 Obj 1.7.
1.1 OSI model

A technician captures traffic and sees that frames arrive intact with valid MAC addresses and correct CRCs, but the receiving host discards them because the logical address inside does not belong to its subnet. At which OSI layer is the packet being dropped?

Answer
Correct answerB · Layer 3 (Network)

Logical (IP) addressing and subnet membership decisions occur at the network layer, so a host rejecting a mismatched logical address drops it at Layer 3.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThe data link layer already succeeded here because frames arrived with valid MAC addresses and passing CRCs, so the frame check was clean.
  • CThe transport layer manages ports, segmentation, and reliability such as TCP sequencing, not the logical network address that determines subnet membership.
  • DThe application layer handles user-facing protocol data and would never see the packet because the host already discarded it lower in the stack.
Logical/IP addressing and subnet decisions are a Layer 3 (Network) function + N10-009 Obj 1.1
1.2 Networking appliances and functions

A web application receives a sudden surge of legitimate users during a product launch. Servers stay healthy individually but a single instance cannot absorb all the new connections. Which appliance is purpose-built to distribute these inbound sessions across multiple backend servers?

Answer
Correct answerC · Load balancer

A load balancer is designed to spread incoming client sessions across a backend pool using methods like round robin or least connections, scaling capacity.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA forward proxy brokers and filters outbound requests on behalf of internal clients, so it does not spread inbound user sessions across a server pool.
  • BAn IPS inspects traffic inline and blocks malicious patterns, but it does not allocate legitimate connections among a group of backend servers.
  • DA Layer 2 switch forwards frames within a broadcast domain using MAC tables and has no awareness of server pools or session distribution.
Load balancers distribute client sessions across a backend server pool + N10-009 Obj 1.2
1.3 Cloud concepts and connectivity

A development team wants to deploy code without managing operating systems, patching, or runtime installation, yet they still need control over the application they write. The provider supplies the OS, middleware, and runtime. Which cloud service model fits this requirement?

Answer
Correct answerA · Platform as a Service (PaaS)

PaaS gives developers a managed runtime and middleware so they deploy only their code while the provider handles the OS and patching beneath it.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BIaaS provides raw virtual machines and networking, leaving the customer responsible for OS patching and runtime installation that the scenario wants avoided.
  • CSaaS delivers a finished application to end users and gives the team no place to deploy their own custom application code.
  • DNFV virtualizes network appliances like routers and firewalls as software, which does not describe a managed application development platform.
PaaS provides a managed runtime/OS while the customer supplies the app + N10-009 Obj 1.3
1.4 Ports and protocols

A network engineer configures devices to forward event logs to a central collector. The traffic is connectionless, uses a well-known UDP port, and prioritizes low overhead over guaranteed delivery. Which destination port should the collector be listening on?

Answer
Correct answerD · UDP 514

Syslog uses UDP 514 by default as a connectionless, low-overhead transport that forwards event log messages to a central collector without guaranteed delivery.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AUDP 161 is used by SNMP for polling and querying device counters, not for receiving forwarded event log messages from network devices.
  • BWhile 514 over TCP can carry reliable syslog, the scenario specifies a connectionless UDP transport, which rules out the TCP variant here.
  • CUDP 162 receives SNMP traps sent by agents to a manager, which is asynchronous SNMP alerting rather than general syslog event forwarding.
Syslog forwards event logs over UDP 514 by default + N10-009 Obj 1.4
1.5 Transmission media and transceivers

A company must connect two buildings roughly 8 kilometers apart with a single 10 Gbps link. The cable run will use a laser source and a small core to limit modal dispersion over the long distance. Which media and transceiver pairing meets this requirement?

Answer
Correct answerB · Single-mode fiber with an LR transceiver

Single-mode fiber's narrow core with a long-reach laser transceiver minimizes modal dispersion and supports 10 Gbps over many kilometers between buildings.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AMultimode with short-reach optics is engineered for in-building runs of a few hundred meters and cannot reliably span an eight kilometer link.
  • CTwisted-pair copper is limited to about 100 meters per segment, so it cannot reach a building eight kilometers away regardless of category.
  • DA direct attach copper cable is a short twinax assembly for top-of-rack links measured in meters, not a kilometers-long inter-building run.
Single-mode fiber with long-reach optics carries 10G over multi-kilometer spans + N10-009 Obj 1.5
1.6 Network topologies and architectures

A data center team is redesigning a fabric to support heavy east-west server-to-server traffic with predictable, equal hop counts between any two access switches. Every access switch must connect to every aggregation switch but never to another access switch. Which architecture matches this design?

Answer
Correct answerC · Spine-leaf

In spine-leaf each leaf connects to every spine and never to another leaf, giving consistent two-hop paths ideal for east-west data center traffic.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA collapsed core merges the core and distribution into one tier to save cost, but it does not guarantee uniform two-hop paths for east-west fabric traffic.
  • BA bus topology shares a single linear backbone medium where all nodes contend, which is obsolete and offers no equal-cost multipath for data center fabrics.
  • DA point-to-point link connects exactly two endpoints directly and cannot describe a multi-switch fabric needing uniform paths among many access switches.
Spine-leaf connects every leaf to every spine for uniform east-west paths + N10-009 Obj 1.6
1.4 Ports and protocols

A network technician must remotely access the command-line interface of a distribution switch across an untrusted segment to change its configuration. Company policy requires that all management credentials and commands travel encrypted. Which protocol and default port should the technician use to satisfy this requirement?

Answer
Correct answerD · SSH over TCP port 22

SSH on TCP port 22 establishes an encrypted interactive command-line session, protecting the credentials and commands as they cross the untrusted segment exactly as the policy demands.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATelnet does provide remote CLI access, but it transmits the login credentials and every command in cleartext, which directly violates the policy requiring encrypted management traffic.
  • BHTTP on port 80 reaches a device's web management page rather than its command-line interface, and it sends data unencrypted, so it fails both the CLI and the security requirement.
  • CSNMP on UDP 161 is used to monitor and poll device statistics or push limited settings, but it is not an interactive CLI session and older versions transmit community strings in cleartext.
Use SSH (TCP 22) for encrypted remote CLI management instead of cleartext Telnet, HTTP, or SNMP; N10-009 Obj 1.4
1.1 OSI model

An application receives its data in the correct order with no packet loss, yet the content displays as unreadable garbage because the sender compressed and encrypted it using a scheme the receiver is not translating back. At which OSI layer does the responsibility for data translation, encryption, and compression reside?

Answer
Correct answerC · Layer 6 (Presentation)

The presentation layer translates data formats and performs encryption and compression, so unreadable content from an untranslated encrypted format is a Layer 6 problem.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThe transport layer handles segmentation, port multiplexing, and reliable ordered delivery, all of which the scenario says already worked, so it is not where translation fails.
  • BThe session layer establishes, maintains, and tears down dialogues between endpoints, but it does not perform the encryption, compression, or character encoding that this content requires.
  • DThe application layer exposes network services to user programs, but the actual reformatting of encrypted or compressed payloads is delegated downward to the presentation layer.
Translation, encryption, and compression are Layer 6 (Presentation) functions + N10-009 Obj 1.1
1.2 Networking appliances and functions

A company supports several hundred remote employees who each require an encrypted tunnel into the corporate network. Leadership wants one dedicated device whose primary role is terminating and managing all of these simultaneous encrypted client sessions at the network edge. Which appliance best fits this requirement?

Answer
Correct answerA · VPN concentrator

A VPN concentrator is purpose-built to terminate and manage many simultaneous encrypted client tunnels, handling authentication and key exchange for large-scale remote access.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BA reverse proxy fronts internal servers and brokers inbound client requests to them, but it does not build and terminate encrypted point-to-point VPN tunnels for remote staff.
  • CAn IDS passively monitors and alerts on suspicious traffic patterns, so it observes activity rather than establishing or terminating encrypted remote-access connections for users.
  • DA content switch makes forwarding decisions based on application-layer data like URLs to steer traffic, which is unrelated to terminating encrypted remote-user tunnels.
A VPN concentrator terminates and manages many simultaneous encrypted tunnels + N10-009 Obj 1.2
1.3 Cloud concepts and connectivity

Instances in a cloud private subnet need to reach the public internet to pull software updates, but the security team requires that no unsolicited inbound connections from the internet can ever reach those instances. Which cloud component should be deployed to allow this outbound-only access?

Answer
Correct answerD · NAT gateway

A NAT gateway lets private-subnet instances initiate outbound internet connections while translating their addresses, so return traffic flows but unsolicited inbound sessions are blocked.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AAn internet gateway grants a subnet full bidirectional public connectivity, which would expose the instances to unsolicited inbound traffic that the security requirement explicitly forbids.
  • BVPC peering privately links two virtual private clouds to each other, but it provides no path to the public internet for downloading external software updates.
  • CA VPN gateway establishes an encrypted tunnel to an on-premises or remote network, which does not give private instances general outbound access to public update servers.
A NAT gateway enables outbound-only internet access for private subnets + N10-009 Obj 1.3
1.4 Ports and protocols

An administrator is hardening directory authentication so that all queries between application servers and the directory service are encrypted with TLS instead of being sent in cleartext. The firewall team needs the destination port for this secure directory lookup traffic. Which port should they open?

Answer
Correct answerB · TCP 636

TCP 636 is LDAPS, which wraps directory lookups in TLS to encrypt queries and credentials between the application servers and the directory service.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATCP 389 carries standard LDAP, which by default transmits directory queries and credentials without encryption, so it does not satisfy the requirement for TLS protection.
  • CTCP 3268 serves global catalog queries across a forest in unencrypted form, so it is not the TLS-protected directory port the administrator needs to open.
  • DTCP 88 is used by Kerberos for ticket-based authentication, which is a separate protocol from the TLS-encrypted LDAP directory lookups described here.
LDAPS encrypts directory queries with TLS over TCP 636 + N10-009 Obj 1.4
1.5 Transmission media and transceivers

A data center team is upgrading links between top-of-rack switches that sit roughly 100 meters apart over existing OM4 multimode fiber. Each link must carry 40 Gbps by aggregating four parallel 10 Gbps lanes into one transceiver form factor. Which transceiver should they select?

Answer
Correct answerC · QSFP+

A QSFP+ transceiver bundles four 10 Gbps lanes into one quad form factor, delivering 40 Gbps over short multimode runs between top-of-rack switches.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AAn SFP+ module supports a single 10 Gbps serial lane, so it cannot aggregate the four parallel lanes required to deliver a combined 40 Gbps link.
  • BA GBIC is a legacy gigabit interface converter built for 1 Gbps connections, leaving it far below the 40 Gbps throughput this data center upgrade demands.
  • DA standard SFP module tops out near 1 Gbps for a single lane, so it falls dramatically short of the 40 Gbps aggregate the design specifies.
QSFP+ aggregates four 10G lanes to provide 40G over multimode + N10-009 Obj 1.5
1.7 IPv6 addressing

A newly connected host that has received no DHCP lease and seen no router advertisement still shows an IPv6 address beginning with fe80:: bound to its interface, and it can reach neighbors on the same switch but nothing beyond. What type of IPv6 address is this?

Answer
Correct answerA · Link-local address, valid only on the local segment

Addresses in fe80::/10 are link-local, auto-generated for use only on the directly attached segment and never forwarded by routers off that link.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BGlobal unicast addresses typically begin in the 2000::/3 range and are routable worldwide, which contradicts the fe80:: prefix and the inability to reach beyond the segment.
  • CUnique local addresses fall under fc00::/7 and are routable within and between private sites, so they do not match the fe80:: prefix shown on this interface.
  • DIPv6 multicast addresses start with ff00::/8 and deliver to a group of receivers, which does not describe this unicast fe80:: address on a single interface.
IPv6 fe80::/10 addresses are link-local, valid only on the local link + N10-009 Obj 1.7
1.8 Modern network environments

A cloud provider must let tenants stretch the same Layer 2 segment across several physical data centers that are connected only by a routed Layer 3 underlay, and it must support far more isolated segments than the roughly 4,094 traditional VLAN limit allows. Which technology meets this need?

Answer
Correct answerD · VXLAN

VXLAN encapsulates Layer 2 frames inside UDP and uses a 24-bit network identifier, allowing roughly sixteen million segments to stretch across a routed Layer 3 underlay.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ASD-WAN centrally manages and steers traffic across multiple wide-area transports for branch connectivity, but it does not encapsulate Layer 2 segments to extend them over a routed underlay.
  • BZero Trust Architecture is a security model that continuously verifies every access request, so it governs trust decisions rather than transporting stretched Layer 2 segments between sites.
  • C802.1Q tagging is itself bound by the 12-bit VLAN ID ceiling of about 4,094 segments and cannot natively carry Layer 2 traffic across a routed Layer 3 underlay.
VXLAN encapsulates Layer 2 in UDP with a 24-bit VNI over an L3 underlay + N10-009 Obj 1.8
1.1 OSI model

A network technician captures traffic and observes that an unmanaged switch forwards frames toward destinations based solely on the 48-bit hardware addresses learned on each port, with no awareness of IP addresses at all. At which OSI layer does this MAC-based forwarding operate?

Answer
Correct answerC · Layer 2 (Data Link)

The data link layer frames data and uses MAC hardware addresses for local delivery, which is exactly how a switch learns ports and forwards frames.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThe physical layer deals with bits, voltages, connectors, and signaling on the medium, not with reading hardware addresses to decide where a frame should be forwarded.
  • BThe network layer forwards packets using logical IP addresses and routing tables across different networks, but the scenario explicitly says the switch ignores IP addressing entirely.
  • DThe transport layer manages port numbers, segmentation, and end-to-end reliability between applications, none of which is involved when a switch forwards frames by hardware address.
MAC-based frame forwarding by a switch is a Layer 2 (Data Link) function + N10-009 Obj 1.1
1.2 Networking appliances and functions

During a holiday sale a single web server keeps becoming overwhelmed while three identical peer servers sit idle. The team wants one appliance that spreads incoming client requests across all four servers and runs health checks to skip any server that stops responding. Which appliance fits?

Answer
Correct answerA · Load balancer

A load balancer spreads incoming client requests across a pool of identical servers and uses health checks to remove unresponsive members, preventing any single server from being overwhelmed.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BA reverse proxy fronts servers and can cache content or terminate TLS for them, but its defining purpose is request brokering and concealment rather than health-checked distribution across a pool.
  • CA forward proxy sits in front of internal clients to control and anonymize their outbound requests to the internet, so it does nothing to distribute inbound load across servers.
  • DAn intrusion detection system passively inspects traffic and raises alerts on suspicious activity, but it never distributes connections or performs health checks on a back-end server pool.
A load balancer distributes client requests across a server pool with health checks + N10-009 Obj 1.2
1.3 Cloud concepts and connectivity

An online retailer's platform automatically provisions additional compute capacity within minutes when shopper traffic spikes during a flash sale, then releases that capacity just as quickly afterward so the company pays only for what it actually consumed. Which cloud characteristic does this describe?

Answer
Correct answerD · Rapid elasticity

Rapid elasticity is the automatic provisioning and release of resources to match demand in near real time, letting the retailer pay only for capacity actually used.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AMultitenancy means multiple customers share the same underlying physical infrastructure while remaining logically isolated, which addresses tenant separation rather than the automatic scaling of capacity with demand.
  • BResource pooling describes the provider aggregating compute, storage, and network into a shared pool drawn from by many customers, but it does not by itself add and remove capacity automatically.
  • CScalability is the ability to add capacity to handle growth, but it does not inherently include automatically releasing resources when demand falls, which is the defining trait here.
Rapid elasticity automatically provisions and releases resources to match demand + N10-009 Obj 1.3
1.4 Ports and protocols

An administrator must replace an insecure cleartext file transfer service with one that tunnels all file operations inside an encrypted SSH session. The firewall team needs the single destination port to permit for this SSH-based file transfer. Which port should they open?

Answer
Correct answerB · TCP 22

TCP 22 carries SSH, and SFTP runs its file transfer operations inside that single encrypted SSH session, so opening port 22 satisfies the secure transfer requirement.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATCP 21 is the FTP control channel that negotiates cleartext file transfers, exactly the insecure service being replaced, so it provides none of the required SSH encryption.
  • CUDP 69 is TFTP, a lightweight, unauthenticated, and unencrypted transfer protocol, which is even less secure than FTP and provides no SSH tunneling at all.
  • DTCP 990 is used by FTPS in implicit mode, which secures FTP with TLS rather than SSH, so it does not match a transfer carried inside an SSH session.
SFTP tunnels file transfer inside SSH on TCP 22 + N10-009 Obj 1.4
1.6 Network topologies and architectures

A data center team wants a switching fabric where every access switch connects to every spine switch, so any server sits exactly one consistent hop from any other server, east-west latency stays predictable, and capacity grows simply by adding more spines. Which architecture is this?

Answer
Correct answerA · Spine-leaf architecture

A spine-leaf fabric connects every leaf to every spine, giving uniform one-hop east-west paths and predictable latency while scaling out by adding more spine switches.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BThe traditional three-tier core, distribution, and access design optimizes north-south traffic, but server-to-server paths can traverse several hops with variable latency, unlike the uniform fabric described.
  • CA collapsed core merges the core and distribution layers into one tier to cut cost in smaller networks, but it does not provide the full leaf-to-spine meshing described.
  • DA point-to-point topology directly links exactly two nodes, which cannot describe a multi-switch data center fabric where many leaves connect to many spines.
Spine-leaf fabrics give uniform one-hop east-west paths that scale by adding spines + N10-009 Obj 1.6
1.7 IPv4 and IPv6 addressing

A host on an IPv6 network receives a router advertisement carrying a /64 prefix, then builds its own full address by appending an interface identifier it derived from its 48-bit MAC by inserting fffe in the middle and flipping the universal/local bit. No DHCP server is involved. Which process is this?

Answer
Correct answerC · SLAAC using EUI-64

SLAAC lets a host self-configure by combining an advertised /64 prefix with an EUI-64 identifier built from its MAC using fffe insertion and bit flipping.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AStateful DHCPv6 hands out full addresses from a server that tracks each lease, but the scenario explicitly states that no DHCP server participates in forming the address.
  • BA manual static assignment requires an administrator to type the full address into the interface, which contradicts the host automatically deriving its identifier from its own MAC.
  • DAnycast assigns one shared address to multiple nodes so traffic reaches the nearest one, which has nothing to do with a host generating a unique identifier from its MAC.
SLAAC combines an advertised prefix with an EUI-64 interface identifier from the MAC + N10-009 Obj 1.7
1.8 Modern network environments

In a software-defined network, a centralized controller computes all forwarding decisions and pushes flow entries down to switches whose hardware then simply forwards packets according to those entries. Which plane is the controller performing the work of?

Answer
Correct answerD · Control plane

The control plane decides how traffic should be forwarded and, in SDN, is centralized in the controller that calculates paths and pushes flow entries to switches.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThe data plane is the forwarding hardware that moves packets according to installed rules, which in SDN is exactly the function delegated to the switches, not the controller.
  • BThe management plane handles administrative tasks like configuration, monitoring, and device access, which is distinct from the real-time forwarding logic the controller computes and distributes.
  • CThe application plane hosts network applications that express intent to the controller through northbound APIs, but it does not itself compute and install the forwarding rules.
SDN separates the control plane (controller decisions) from the data plane (switch forwarding) + N10-009 Obj 1.8
1.8 Subnetting (CIDR, VLSM)

An engineer is numbering dozens of point-to-point WAN links between routers and wants each link's subnet to provide exactly two usable host addresses while still keeping a network and broadcast address, wasting as little space as possible. Which subnet mask should be assigned to each link?

Answer
Correct answerC · 255.255.255.252 (/30)

A /30 yields four total addresses: one network, one broadcast, and exactly two usable hosts, perfectly fitting a point-to-point link.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA /28 leaves 14 usable host addresses per subnet, which wastes 12 addresses on a link that only needs two endpoints.
  • BA /29 provides six usable host addresses, far more than the two endpoints a point-to-point router link actually requires.
  • DA /27 supplies thirty usable host addresses, dramatically over-provisioning a link that connects only two router interfaces.
A /30 gives exactly two usable hosts for point-to-point links; N10-009 Obj 1.8
1.1 OSI model

A remote-procedure-call protocol establishes a dialogue between two hosts, keeps that dialogue open while exchanging data, inserts checkpoints so an interrupted transfer can resume, and then gracefully tears the conversation down. Which OSI layer is responsible for managing these dialogues?

Answer
Correct answerB · Session layer

The session layer establishes, maintains, synchronizes with checkpoints, and terminates the dialogues or sessions between two communicating applications.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThe transport layer provides end-to-end delivery and segmentation, but coordinating dialogue setup, checkpoints, and teardown is handled one layer higher.
  • CThe presentation layer translates, encrypts, and compresses data formats, but it does not manage the establishment or checkpointing of dialogues.
  • DThe application layer provides network services to user processes, while dialogue control and synchronization are the specific job of the session layer.
Session layer manages dialogue setup, synchronization, and teardown; N10-009 Obj 1.1
1.4 Ports and protocols

A mail server must relay outbound messages directly to another organization's mail server across the internet using the traditional server-to-server mail transfer protocol. The firewall team needs to know which destination port and protocol to permit for this transfer. Which should they open?

Answer
Correct answerA · TCP 25 (SMTP)

SMTP uses TCP port 25 for traditional server-to-server mail relay, which is exactly the transfer described in this scenario.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BPOP3 on port 110 lets a client download and remove mail from a mailbox, not relay messages between mail servers.
  • CIMAP on port 143 lets a client read and manage mail stored on a server, not perform server-to-server transfer.
  • DPort 587 is the authenticated message submission port used by clients to hand mail to their own server, not for relay.
Server-to-server mail transfer uses SMTP on TCP 25; N10-009 Obj 1.4
1.4 DNS record types

An administrator hosts a website at the canonical name web01.example.com and wants both www.example.com and shop.example.com to resolve to that same canonical hostname, so that changing the underlying IP address later requires editing only one record. Which DNS record type should the aliases use?

Answer
Correct answerD · CNAME record

A CNAME aliases a name to a canonical hostname, so the IP is defined once and all aliases follow it automatically.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AAn A record maps a name directly to an IPv4 address, so updating the IP would require editing every alias individually.
  • BAn MX record designates the mail exchanger for a domain and plays no role in pointing one web hostname to another.
  • CA TXT record holds arbitrary text such as SPF data, not a pointer that aliases one hostname to another canonical name.
CNAME aliases one hostname to a canonical name; N10-009 Obj 1.4
1.1 TCP vs UDP

During a large overnight database replication job, every byte must arrive intact and in order, and any segment lost in transit must be detected and resent. Which transport-layer mechanism allows TCP to recognize that a segment was lost and trigger its retransmission?

Answer
Correct answerB · Sequence numbers and acknowledgments

TCP numbers each byte and expects acknowledgments, so a missing acknowledgment for a sequence range signals loss and triggers retransmission.

Why the other options are wrong
  • APort numbers identify the sending and receiving applications, but they provide no way to detect that a particular segment went missing.
  • CThe checksum detects corruption within a received segment, but it cannot reveal that an entire segment never arrived at all.
  • DConnectionless best-effort delivery describes UDP, which performs no retransmission and is the opposite of the reliability TCP provides here.
TCP uses sequence numbers and ACKs to detect loss and retransmit; N10-009 Obj 1.1
1.7 IPv4 addressing (RFC 1918)

A technician is auditing an address plan and must confirm which of the following host addresses falls inside the RFC 1918 private range that spans 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255. Which address belongs to that private block?

Answer
Correct answerC · 172.16.200.5

172.16.200.5 sits within 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255, placing it squarely inside the RFC 1918 private address range.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThe private range stops at 172.31.255.255, so 172.32.x addresses fall just outside the block and are publicly routable.
  • BThe private 192.168.0.0/16 block ends at 192.168.255.255, so 192.169.x addresses are public, not RFC 1918 private.
  • DOnly 10.0.0.0/8 is private in that decade; the 11.0.0.0 network is publicly assigned and not part of RFC 1918.
RFC 1918 private block 172.16.0.0–172.31.255.255; N10-009 Obj 1.7
1.2 Networking appliances and functions

A security team wants a device placed directly in the traffic path that not only recognizes malicious packets matching known signatures but also actively drops them in real time before they reach internal hosts, rather than merely generating an alert for analysts to review later. Which appliance fits this requirement?

Answer
Correct answerA · Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

An inline IPS inspects traffic and can actively block or drop malicious packets in real time, exactly matching the described preventive role.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BAn IDS typically monitors passively and raises alerts on suspicious traffic, but it does not sit inline to drop the packets itself.
  • CA network tap copies traffic for monitoring tools to observe, providing visibility only and never blocking or modifying the live flow.
  • DA SIEM aggregates and correlates logs for analysis after the fact; it does not inspect or drop packets in the live data path.
Inline IPS actively blocks malicious traffic; N10-009 Obj 1.2
1.3 Cloud concepts and connectivity

A financial firm needs to extend its on-premises data center to a public cloud provider over a dedicated private physical circuit that bypasses the public internet entirely, giving consistent low latency and predictable bandwidth for sensitive workloads. Which connectivity option satisfies this requirement?

Answer
Correct answerD · A dedicated direct cloud interconnect (Direct Connect)

A dedicated direct interconnect is a private physical circuit to the provider, bypassing the public internet for predictable latency and bandwidth.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AAn IPsec VPN encrypts traffic but still rides the public internet, so its latency and bandwidth remain subject to internet congestion.
  • BA client VPN connects individual remote users over the internet and does not provide a dedicated circuit between data centers and cloud.
  • CA NAT gateway lets private cloud instances reach the internet outbound; it is not a private link from on-premises to the provider.
Direct private interconnect bypasses the internet to the cloud; N10-009 Obj 1.3
1.5 Transmission media and transceivers

A network designer needs to run 10GBASE-T copper links to workstations and wants the lowest-cost twisted-pair cabling that can reliably sustain 10 Gbps across the full 100-meter horizontal distance without distance derating. Which cable category should be specified?

Answer
Correct answerB · Category 6a

Category 6a is engineered to support 10GBASE-T across the full 100-meter run with reduced alien crosstalk, meeting every stated requirement.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ACategory 5e is rated for 1000BASE-T and cannot reliably carry 10 Gbps, so it fails the 10GBASE-T speed requirement entirely.
  • CCategory 6 can carry 10GBASE-T only over a reduced distance (roughly 37–55 meters depending on alien-crosstalk mitigation), so it cannot guarantee 10 Gbps across the full 100-meter distance.
  • DCategory 3 was designed for 10 Mbps and voice wiring, making it far too slow for any 10 Gigabit Ethernet application.
Cat 6a supports 10GBASE-T to 100 m; N10-009 Obj 1.5
1.6 Network topologies and architectures

A data center fabric is built so that every access (leaf) switch connects directly to every backbone (spine) switch, while leaf switches never connect to one another. This gives any two servers the same predictable two-hop path and scales east-west capacity by adding more spine switches. Which architecture does this describe?

Answer
Correct answerC · Spine-and-leaf

In spine-and-leaf every leaf connects to every spine and never to another leaf, so each leaf-to-leaf path is a consistent two hops and capacity scales by adding spines.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA collapsed-core/hierarchical design layers core, distribution, and access switches; it does not give every access switch a direct link to every backbone switch.
  • BA bus topology shares a single backbone cable among all hosts, which is the opposite of the dedicated leaf-to-spine links described here.
  • DA ring passes traffic device to device around a closed loop, not through a full set of dedicated leaf-to-spine connections.
Spine-and-leaf connects every leaf to every spine for predictable two-hop paths; N10-009 Obj 1.6
1.7 IPv6 addressing

An administrator wants to assign IPv6 addresses for internal routing across the organization that are not globally routable on the public internet, function as the IPv6 equivalent of RFC 1918 private space, and begin with the fd prefix. Which IPv6 address type meets this need?

Answer
Correct answerA · Unique local address (ULA)

Unique local addresses in fc00::/7, commonly written with the fd prefix, provide private internal IPv6 space that is not globally routable.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BGlobal unicast addresses, typically in 2000::/3, are publicly routable on the internet, the opposite of the private scope required here.
  • CLink-local addresses in fe80::/10 work only on a single link and are never routed, so they cannot serve organization-wide internal routing.
  • DMulticast addresses in ff00::/8 deliver to groups of interfaces and do not identify individual hosts for private unicast routing.
ULA (fc00::/7, fd prefix) is private internal IPv6; N10-009 Obj 1.7
1.8 Modern network environments

A retailer with many branch sites wants to combine an MPLS circuit, a broadband internet link, and an LTE backup at each location under a single centralized policy that dynamically steers each application's traffic onto the best-performing path. Which technology delivers this centralized, application-aware transport selection?

Answer
Correct answerD · SD-WAN

SD-WAN abstracts multiple transport links under central policy and dynamically steers each application onto the best-performing path, matching every requirement.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AMPLS is one of the underlying transport circuits being combined, not the overlay that centrally steers applications across multiple links.
  • BVXLAN extends Layer 2 segments over a Layer 3 underlay in data centers; it does not perform branch WAN path selection by application.
  • CA VPN concentrator terminates many encrypted tunnels but does not provide centralized, application-aware steering across diverse branch transport links.
SD-WAN centrally steers applications across multiple WAN transports; N10-009 Obj 1.8
1.8 Subnetting (CIDR, VLSM)

A planning team is allocating the block 10.40.0.0/22 to a large department and needs to tell the application owners exactly how many usable host addresses that single subnet provides. What is the correct count of usable hosts in a /22?

Answer
Correct answerB · 1,022 usable hosts

A /22 contains 1,024 total addresses; subtracting the network and broadcast addresses leaves exactly 1,022 usable host addresses.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A254 usable hosts corresponds to a /24, which has 256 total addresses, not the larger /22 block described in the scenario.
  • C510 usable hosts matches a /23, which holds 512 total addresses, half the size of the /22 being allocated here.
  • D2,046 usable hosts corresponds to a /21 with 2,048 total addresses, twice the size of the /22 in this allocation.
A /22 has 1,024 addresses minus network and broadcast equals 1,022 usable; N10-009 Obj 1.8
1.4 Ports and protocols

A support technician needs to open a graphical remote session to a Windows server's desktop across the firewall using the native Microsoft remote desktop protocol. The firewall administrator asks for the single default destination port to permit for this connection. Which port should be opened?

Answer
Correct answerC · TCP 3389

TCP 3389 is the default port for Microsoft's Remote Desktop Protocol, which delivers the graphical Windows desktop session described here.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATCP 23 is Telnet, an unencrypted text-based remote shell, not the graphical Windows remote desktop protocol the technician needs.
  • BTCP 22 is SSH, used for secure command-line access, and does not carry the Microsoft remote desktop graphical session.
  • DTCP 5900 is the default for VNC, a different remote desktop technology, not Microsoft's native Remote Desktop Protocol.
RDP uses TCP 3389; N10-009 Obj 1.4
1.4 DNS record types

An administrator is publishing DNS entries for a newly dual-stacked web server and needs the record that resolves the server's hostname to its 128-bit IPv6 address so that IPv6-capable clients can reach it. Which DNS record type provides this mapping?

Answer
Correct answerA · AAAA record

The AAAA record maps a hostname to a 128-bit IPv6 address, which is exactly the resolution IPv6-capable clients require here.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BThe A record maps a hostname to a 32-bit IPv4 address, not the 128-bit IPv6 address the dual-stacked server needs published.
  • CThe PTR record performs reverse lookups from an address back to a hostname, the opposite direction of the mapping required here.
  • DThe SRV record advertises the host and port of a specific service, not a direct hostname-to-IPv6-address resolution.
AAAA maps a hostname to an IPv6 address; N10-009 Obj 1.4
1.1 Devices and the OSI model

A technician examines a legacy device that simply regenerates an incoming electrical signal and repeats it out of every other port, with no awareness of MAC addresses, IP addresses, or any framing. At which OSI layer does this signal-repeating device operate?

Answer
Correct answerD · Layer 1, the physical layer

A hub or repeater regenerates and repeats electrical signals across ports with no addressing, operating purely at the physical layer.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA data link device such as a switch reads MAC addresses to make forwarding decisions, but this device has no addressing awareness at all.
  • BA network-layer device routes using IP addresses, whereas this device only repeats raw electrical signals with no logical addressing.
  • CThe transport layer manages ports and end-to-end delivery, far above a device that merely regenerates and repeats electrical signals.
Hubs and repeaters operate at OSI Layer 1; N10-009 Obj 1.1
1.7 IPv6 addressing

An engineer must record the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:ff00:0042:8329 in its shortest valid form, applying both leading-zero suppression and the double-colon rule correctly. Which option is the fully and correctly compressed representation of this IPv6 address?

Answer
Correct answerB · 2001:db8::ff00:42:8329

Leading zeros are dropped and the three consecutive all-zero groups collapse to a single double colon, giving the correct shortest form.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis uses the double colon twice, which is invalid because a reader cannot tell how many zero groups each :: replaces.
  • CThis wrongly shortens the ff00 group to ff, altering the actual address value rather than simply suppressing zeros.
  • DTrimming 2001 down to 21 removes significant digits instead of only leading zeros, which changes the first hextet entirely.
IPv6 compression: suppress leading zeros, single :: for consecutive zero groups; N10-009 Obj 1.7
1.3 Cloud concepts and connectivity

A company moving workloads to a public cloud wants its own logically isolated network within the provider where it defines its private IP address ranges, subnets, and route tables, separate from every other tenant sharing the same infrastructure. Which cloud construct provides this isolated virtual network?

Answer
Correct answerC · Virtual private cloud (VPC)

A VPC is the tenant's logically isolated virtual network where it defines private IP ranges, subnets, and route tables within the provider.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AAn availability zone is an isolated physical location within a region for fault tolerance, not a tenant's logically isolated IP-addressed network.
  • BA region is a broad geographic area containing multiple data centers, not the per-tenant virtual network with custom subnets described here.
  • DA CDN caches content at edge locations to reduce latency for users, not an isolated virtual network for defining private subnets.
A VPC is a tenant's logically isolated cloud network; N10-009 Obj 1.3
1.5 Transmission media and transceivers

A network architect is adding a single 10 Gigabit Ethernet fiber uplink between two switches and must choose the pluggable transceiver form factor designed to carry exactly one 10 Gbps Ethernet lane. Which transceiver form factor should be selected?

Answer
Correct answerA · SFP+

The SFP+ form factor is designed to carry a single 10 Gigabit Ethernet lane, matching the one 10 Gbps uplink described here.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BThe standard SFP form factor tops out at 1 Gigabit Ethernet, so it cannot deliver the required 10 Gbps on the uplink.
  • CQSFP+ aggregates four 10 Gbps lanes into 40 Gigabit Ethernet, which exceeds and does not match a single 10 Gbps requirement.
  • DThe legacy GBIC form factor supports Gigabit Ethernet at 1 Gbps, far below the 10 Gbps the new uplink requires.
SFP+ carries a single 10 Gigabit Ethernet lane; N10-009 Obj 1.5
1.2 Networking appliances and functions

An organization wants all employee web browsing to pass through one device that fetches pages on the clients' behalf, caches frequently requested content to save bandwidth, and enforces URL filtering policy before responses return to the users. Which appliance performs this client-side intermediary role?

Answer
Correct answerD · Forward proxy

A forward proxy retrieves web pages for internal clients, caches frequently requested content, and applies URL filtering, exactly matching this role.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA reverse proxy fronts internal servers to receive requests from outside clients, the opposite direction of mediating outbound employee browsing.
  • BA load balancer distributes inbound connections across backend servers; it does not fetch, cache, and filter outbound client web requests.
  • CA stateful firewall permits or denies traffic by connection state, but it does not fetch pages or cache content on the clients' behalf.
A forward proxy mediates, caches, and filters outbound client web requests; N10-009 Obj 1.2
1.4 Ports and protocols

A technician is writing a firewall rule to permit a DHCP server to receive lease requests from clients that broadcast on the network. The traffic is connectionless and uses UDP. On which destination port does the DHCP server listen for these client requests?

Answer
Correct answerB · UDP 67

A DHCP server listens on UDP port 67 for client requests, while clients receive replies on UDP port 68.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AUDP 53 is used by DNS for name resolution queries, not by a DHCP server receiving address lease requests from clients.
  • CUDP 69 is used by TFTP for simple file transfers such as firmware images, not for DHCP lease assignment traffic.
  • DUDP 123 is used by NTP to synchronize device clocks, which is unrelated to a DHCP server's address-leasing function.
DHCP server listens on UDP 67 (clients on 68); N10-009 Obj 1.4
1.7 IPv4 and IPv6 addressing

An enterprise is running an IPv6-only segment, but several hosts there must still reach a legacy application server that has only an IPv4 address and cannot be upgraded. Which transition mechanism translates between the IPv6 hosts and the IPv4-only server so they can communicate?

Answer
Correct answerC · NAT64

NAT64 translates between IPv6 and IPv4, letting IPv6-only hosts communicate with an IPv4-only server that cannot be upgraded.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ADual stack requires each host to run both IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously, but the segment described is IPv6-only and cannot do that.
  • BSLAAC lets IPv6 hosts autoconfigure their own addresses from a router advertisement; it performs no translation to IPv4 at all.
  • DEUI-64 derives an IPv6 interface identifier from a MAC address; it builds an address but never translates between IP versions.
NAT64 translates IPv6-only hosts to IPv4-only servers; N10-009 Obj 1.7

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About this domain

Domain 1 is the conceptual foundation of CompTIA Network+ — and at 23% of the exam, it is the single largest knowledge domain on N10-009. It covers the models and addressing every other domain builds on: the OSI model, ports and protocols, IPv4 and IPv6 addressing, subnetting, DNS, and the difference between TCP and UDP. Get these right and the implementation, operations, security, and troubleshooting domains all become far easier, because they all describe the same concepts in an applied context.

The questions below are written against the publicly published N10-009 objectives and every answer is verified and explained — you see why the correct option is correct, why each distractor is a trap, and the source it is checked against. That turns each rep into a short study session rather than a guess-and-check. Work through the set untimed, read every explanation (even when you answer correctly), then move on to the other domains or a full timed mock.

What Domain 1 covers

Domain 1 quick glossary

The terms that show up most on Domain 1 questions — one line each.

OSI modelSeven-layer reference model (Physical → Application) used to describe and troubleshoot how data moves across a network.
Layer 4 — TransportWhere TCP and UDP live; handles end-to-end delivery and port numbers.
TCP vs UDPTCP is reliable and connection-oriented; UDP is fast and connectionless — used for real-time traffic like VoIP.
SubnettingSplitting one network into smaller subnets; usable hosts = 2ⁿ − 2 (network + broadcast reserved).
CIDR / VLSMClassless notation (e.g. /26) and variable-length masks that size each subnet to its host count.
A vs AAAA recordDNS A maps a hostname to an IPv4 address; AAAA maps to an IPv6 address.
SSH (TCP 22)Encrypted remote command-line access — the secure replacement for cleartext Telnet (TCP 23).

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