Ad slot · leaderboard (728×90 / responsive)Manual unit, below nav — clear of every quiz tap target
Home/ CompTIA A+ Core 2/ Domain 4: Operational Procedures
Free · 220-1202 · Domain 4 of 4

CompTIA A+ Core 2 Domain 4: Operational Procedures

22% of the 220-1202 exam
Practice — Domain 4
4.2 Given a scenario, implement change management best practices

A technician wants to push a firewall rule change to several production servers during business hours because it will 'only take a minute.' Following standard change-management practice, what should happen FIRST?

Answer
Correct answerB · Submit a request for change so it is reviewed and approved before implementation

Configuration change control requires that proposed changes to the baseline be documented, reviewed, and approved by the change/configuration control board before they are implemented.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis skips the formal review/approval step; making an unassessed change directly to a production baseline is exactly the uncontrolled action that change management exists to prevent and document beforehand.
  • CUser notification is part of communication, but it is not the controlling step; the change still must be formally proposed and approved before any production baseline is modified, regardless of who was warned.
  • DEditing inventory to say servers were modified before any approved change is performed is both premature and inaccurate; asset records are updated to reflect changes, not to authorize them.
Changes to a configuration baseline must go through documented configuration change control (review/approval); 220-1202 Obj 4.2
4.2 Given a scenario, implement change management best practices

A change request to upgrade an application server is being prepared. Reviewers insist the request document how the team will return the server to its prior working state if the upgrade fails. Which element are they requiring?

Answer
Correct answerD · A back-out (rollback) plan

A back-out or rollback plan documents the steps to restore affected systems to their previous state if the change fails, so service can be recovered quickly.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ARisk analysis evaluates the likelihood and impact of the change before approval; it informs the decision but does not describe the procedure to reverse the change after it has already failed in production.
  • BAcceptance testing confirms the change works for users after deployment; it validates success but provides no documented steps for restoring the previous state when the upgrade goes wrong.
  • CA maintenance window only sets when the work occurs to limit disruption; scheduling the timing says nothing about how the system would be recovered to its earlier configuration if the change breaks it.
A rollback/back-out plan documents how to restore the prior state if a change fails; 220-1202 Obj 4.2
4.3 Given a scenario, implement workstation backup and recovery methods

An administrator runs a full backup every Sunday. On the other nights they want each job to copy ONLY the data that changed since the previous night's backup, keeping nightly jobs as small and fast as possible. Which backup type fits?

Answer
Correct answerC · Incremental backup

An incremental backup stores only the blocks or files that changed since the previous backup (full or incremental), giving the smallest, fastest nightly jobs.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA full backup copies the entire data set every time it runs; using it nightly maximizes job size and time, which is the opposite of the small, fast change-only nightly job the administrator wants.
  • BA differential copies everything changed since the last full backup, so nightly jobs keep growing through the week; it speeds restores but does not limit each job to only the prior night's changes.
  • DA synthetic full merges an existing full with later backups to build a new full image; it produces a complete copy rather than a small nightly job limited to the last night's changes.
Incremental backups capture only data changed since the previous (full or incremental) backup; 220-1202 Obj 4.3
4.3 Given a scenario, implement workstation backup and recovery methods

A small business owner keeps three copies of critical files but stores all of them on two external drives sitting next to the server. Per the 3-2-1 backup rule, what is still missing?

Answer
Correct answerA · One copy kept offsite

The 3-2-1 rule requires that one of the copies be stored offsite so a local disaster cannot destroy every copy at once.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BThe rule specifies three copies, not four, and adding another copy on the same site and hardware does nothing to protect against the local hazard that the offsite requirement addresses.
  • CEncryption protects confidentiality of backups but is not one of the three numbers in the 3-2-1 rule; encrypted copies all sitting in one location are still lost together in a fire or theft.
  • DRestore testing is good practice for verifying recoverability, but it is separate from the 3-2-1 rule; testing copies that are all onsite does not satisfy the missing offsite requirement.
The 3-2-1 rule: 3 copies, on 2 different media, with 1 copy stored offsite; 220-1202 Obj 4.3
4.4 Given a scenario, use common safety procedures

A technician is about to remove and replace RAM and an expansion card inside a desktop. Which practice BEST protects the ESD-sensitive components while they are handled at the bench?

Answer
Correct answerB · Wear an antistatic wrist strap bonded to a common ground point

A grounded wrist strap electrically connects the technician's skin to ground, continuously bleeding off body static so it cannot discharge into ESD-sensitive parts.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AEdge connectors are exactly the contacts you should avoid touching; this neither bonds the technician to ground nor dissipates body charge, so a static discharge can still damage the part.
  • CCarpet is a classic static generator and air exposure is not the hazard; rushing on an insulating surface increases charge buildup and the chance of a damaging discharge into the components.
  • DLeaving the unit energized while installing parts creates a shock and short-circuit hazard and is unsafe; equipment should be powered off and unplugged, with grounding provided by proper ESD tools.
A grounded antistatic wrist strap bonds the technician to ground to prevent ESD damage; 220-1202 Obj 4.4
4.4 Given a scenario, use common safety procedures

An instructor explains why electrical equipment and circuits are connected to a proper ground (earth). What is the PRIMARY purpose of this equipment grounding?

Answer
Correct answerC · It protects people by providing a low-impedance path so faults clear safely

Protective grounding is installed to protect employees, giving fault current a low-impedance path so protective devices operate and hazardous voltage is not left on equipment.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AGrounding does not raise supply voltage or improve efficiency; this confuses the protective earth path with the current-carrying conductors that actually deliver operating power to the device.
  • BGrounding does not make live work safe; employers must still de-energize and verify the absence of voltage before work, so grounding supplements lockout, it does not replace de-energizing.
  • DEquipment grounding for electrical safety addresses fault current and shock, not static on insulators; controlling ESD on plastics requires dissipative materials and personnel grounding, a different control.
Equipment grounding protects personnel by giving fault current a low-impedance path so protective devices operate; 220-1202 Obj 4.4
4.5 Summarize environmental impacts and local environmental controls

Before disposing of a leaking bottle of electronics cleaning solvent, a technician needs the official document that lists the product's hazards and proper handling, storage, and disposal precautions. Which document is this?

Answer
Correct answerA · The Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

The SDS, formerly the MSDS, gives the chemical's hazards plus handling, storage, and disposal precautions in a standardized 16-section format.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BAn AUP defines how employees may use company IT systems and data; it governs user behavior on the network and contains none of the chemical hazard or disposal information needed for a solvent.
  • CA EULA sets the legal terms for using software; it is a licensing contract and provides no information about a physical chemical's hazards, handling, or safe disposal requirements.
  • DA ticket-handling SOP documents internal support workflow steps; it describes process, not the regulated chemical-specific hazard and disposal data that only a Safety Data Sheet supplies.
The SDS (formerly MSDS) provides chemical hazards and handling/disposal guidance in a 16-section format; 220-1202 Obj 4.5
4.5 Summarize environmental impacts and local environmental controls

A company is retiring a stack of old laptops, several of which still contain swollen lithium-ion batteries. Which disposal approach is correct?

Answer
Correct answerD · Remove the batteries and route the e-waste and batteries to proper recyclers

EPA guidance says to remove batteries and recycle electronics and lithium-ion batteries through proper recycling channels rather than the trash.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ALithium-ion batteries are not allowed in household garbage or recycling bins; trashing them risks fires and improper disposal of hazardous materials, which is exactly what regulated recycling prevents.
  • BLithium-ion batteries must not go in household recycling bins either; they require dedicated battery-recycling channels because of fire and hazardous-waste risks, not standard commingled recycling.
  • CBurning lithium-ion batteries is dangerous and releases hazardous materials; end-of-life batteries are managed as regulated waste and recycled, never destroyed by uncontrolled on-site incineration.
Electronics and lithium-ion batteries must be recycled through proper channels, not discarded in the trash; 220-1202 Obj 4.5
4.6 Explain the importance of prohibited content/activity and privacy, licensing, and policy concepts

While imaging a customer's drive, a technician finds a spreadsheet containing customers' full names, home addresses, and government ID numbers. How should this data be classified for handling purposes?

Answer
Correct answerB · Personally identifiable information (PII) that must be protected

Data that relates to an identified or identifiable person, such as names with addresses and ID numbers, is PII/personal data that must be protected from improper access, use, or disclosure.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AVoluntarily providing data to a business does not make it public; names tied to addresses and ID numbers identify individuals and remain protected, so treating it as public ignores its sensitivity.
  • CPCI DSS covers payment card data such as the primary account number; names, addresses, and ID numbers are personal data but are not payment card account data, so PCI is not the governing scope here.
  • DIntellectual property refers to creations like software or designs owned by a creator; the customer's personal records are neither created nor owned by the shop and are not intellectual property.
Names, addresses, and ID numbers are PII/personal data that must be protected; 220-1202 Obj 4.6
4.6 Explain the importance of prohibited content/activity and privacy, licensing, and policy concepts

A small online retailer stores customers' full credit card numbers in a database so repeat buyers can check out faster. Which compliance standard most directly governs how that stored data must be protected?

Answer
Correct answerC · PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard)

PCI DSS sets requirements for any entity that stores, processes, or transmits cardholder data such as the primary account number, exactly what the retailer is storing.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AGDPR governs personal data of individuals in the EU broadly; it may apply, but it is not the standard written specifically to protect stored payment card account data, which the scenario centers on.
  • BThe GPL is a software licensing model governing source-code distribution; it has nothing to do with protecting stored payment card numbers and is unrelated to handling regulated cardholder data.
  • DHIPAA's protected health information rules apply to health-care data held by covered entities; a retailer storing credit card numbers is handling payment data, not medical records, so HIPAA does not govern it.
PCI DSS governs entities that store/process/transmit cardholder data such as the PAN; 220-1202 Obj 4.6
4.7 Given a scenario, use proper communication techniques and professionalism (incident response)

A technician discovers apparent illegal images on a company laptop and reports it. Management says the device may become evidence. To preserve its value, the technician must document everyone who handles the device and when. This documentation is called the:

Answer
Correct answerA · Chain of custody

Chain of custody tracks evidence through collection, safeguarding, and analysis by documenting each person who handled it and the date/time and purpose of each transfer.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BAn acceptable use policy defines permitted use of company systems; it may have been violated here, but it does not track who handled a seized device, which is what evidence preservation requires.
  • CAn SLA defines service commitments such as response and resolution times between a provider and customer; it has no role in documenting the handling and transfer history of physical evidence.
  • DA knowledge base article captures reusable troubleshooting or how-to information for technicians; it is reference content, not the tracked record of who controlled a piece of evidence over time.
Chain of custody documents each handler and transfer of evidence to preserve its integrity; 220-1202 Obj 4.7
4.8 Identify the basics of scripting

A Windows administrator wants to write a reusable automation script using cmdlets like Get-Service and Get-ChildItem and save it with the matching file extension. Which file type should the script be saved as?

Answer
Correct answerD · .ps1

PowerShell scripts use the .ps1 extension, which is the correct format for a reusable file built from PowerShell cmdlets on Windows.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA .bat file is a Command shell batch script that runs legacy Windows commands; it does not natively execute PowerShell cmdlets, so saving cmdlet-based automation with this extension is the wrong file type.
  • BA .py file is a Python script run by the Python interpreter; cmdlets like Get-Service are PowerShell language constructs and are not valid Python, so this extension does not match the script.
  • CA .sh file is a Unix/Linux shell script executed by a shell such as bash; it is not the native Windows PowerShell format and would not run PowerShell cmdlets as written.
PowerShell scripts use the .ps1 file extension; 220-1202 Obj 4.8
4.4 Given a scenario, use common safety procedures

A technician must keep a portable fire extinguisher next to a rack of energized network switches and a running UPS. Which extinguisher is appropriate for a fire in that energized electrical equipment?

Answer
Correct answerB · A carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguisher, which is listed for Class B and Class C energized-electrical fires

Energized electrical equipment is a Class C hazard, and CO2 is listed for Class B and Class C fires and leaves no residue, making it safe on electronics.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AWater conducts electricity and is rated for ordinary Class A combustibles; using it on energized equipment risks shock and does not match the Class C electrical hazard described.
  • CDry-powder Class D agents are intended for burning combustible metals, not energized electronics; choosing it confuses the metal-fire class with the Class C electrical hazard in the scenario.
  • DWet chemical targets Class K cooking oils and its agent conducts electricity, so it is unsuitable for the energized electrical (Class C) equipment fire described here.
Energized electrical equipment is a Class C fire; CO2 is listed for Class B and C; 220-1202 Obj 4.4
4.4 Given a scenario, use common safety procedures

An employer is told to place portable fire extinguishers based on 'the classes of anticipated workplace fires.' For an area whose main risk is ordinary combustibles (Class A), what maximum travel distance to an extinguisher does OSHA require?

Answer
Correct answerC · 75 feet of travel distance to the nearest extinguisher

OSHA requires Class A extinguishers be distributed so employee travel distance to any extinguisher is 75 feet or less, matching the ordinary-combustible hazard here.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AOSHA does not set one universal distance; it varies by class, so claiming a single 25-foot rule for all classes misstates the selection-and-distribution requirement.
  • BFifty feet is the maximum travel distance OSHA sets for Class B flammable-liquid hazards, not for the Class A ordinary-combustible hazard described in the scenario.
  • DSpacing is driven by fire class and hazard, not floor area alone, and OSHA sets no 100-foot Class A allowance, so this distractor inflates the permitted distance.
OSHA 1910.157(d): extinguishers selected/distributed by anticipated fire class; Class A travel <=75 ft; 220-1202 Obj 4.4
4.4 Given a scenario, use common safety procedures

In a server room, patch cables and a power-strip cord lie loose across a walkway, and one branch-circuit conductor rests directly on the floor. What is the correct operational-safety concern and action?

Answer
Correct answerD · Cords across walkways are a trip hazard and conductors must not lie on the floor; route, support, and protect the cables

Walking surfaces must stay orderly and free of hazards and branch-circuit conductors may not be laid on the floor, so cables must be routed, supported, and protected.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ALabeling and periodic inspection do not remove the trip hazard or the prohibition on floor-laid conductors; the cords still endanger anyone walking the path.
  • BWalking-surface housekeeping rules apply regardless of voltage, so dismissing placement misreads the trip-hazard and floor-conductor requirements that govern the room.
  • CFlexible cords may not be used as a substitute for fixed wiring, and tape does not satisfy support or damage-protection rules, so this normalizes a noncompliant setup.
OSHA 1910.22 housekeeping and 1910.305 cable rules: no conductors on floor; protect cords; 220-1202 Obj 4.4
4.4 Given a scenario, use common safety procedures

A technician must move several heavy UPS units and full server chassis from a loading dock to a rack room. Which approach best reflects ergonomic and material-handling safety guidance?

Answer
Correct answerA · Use assistive lifting devices and proper technique to reduce musculoskeletal injury risk

Guidance recommends assistive lifting devices and fitting the task to the worker to prevent musculoskeletal disorders, directly addressing the heavy-lifting hazard described here.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BSpeed and bending/jerking with the back increase strain and injury risk; ergonomic guidance targets reducing overexertion, not minimizing handling time at the spine's expense.
  • CWork-related musculoskeletal disorders are described as preventable through an ergonomic process, so treating lifting injuries as inevitable ignores established controls and assistive equipment.
  • DLifting heavy items is itself a recognized MSD risk factor alongside repetition, so excluding occasional heavy lifts from concern understates the documented hazard.
OSHA/NIOSH ergonomics: lifting is an MSD risk factor; use lifting aids and proper technique; 220-1202 Obj 4.4
4.4 Given a scenario, use common safety procedures

A small fire ignites in an open tray of flammable solvent on a workbench. Which fire class is this, and what maximum travel distance to a suitable extinguisher does OSHA set for that hazard?

Answer
Correct answerC · Class B (flammable liquids), with extinguishers within a 50-foot travel distance

Flammable and combustible liquids are Class B fires, and OSHA requires Class B extinguishers be placed so travel distance is 50 feet or less.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ASolvents are flammable liquids, not ordinary Class A combustibles, so applying the 75-foot Class A spacing misclassifies the hazard and the required distribution distance.
  • BClass C specifically means energized electrical equipment, not flammable liquids, so labeling a solvent fire Class C confuses the electrical class with a flammable-liquid fire.
  • DClass K covers cooking media in kitchen appliances, not bench solvents, so treating an industrial flammable-liquid fire as a cooking-oil fire selects the wrong agent and class.
Flammable liquids are Class B; OSHA Class B travel distance <=50 ft; 220-1202 Obj 4.4
4.3 Given a scenario, implement workstation backup and recovery methods

A server fails Thursday night. The team runs a full backup every Sunday and a DIFFERENTIAL backup each weeknight. To fully restore Thursday's data, which backups must be applied, and why?

Answer
Correct answerB · Sunday's full backup, then only Thursday's differential

A differential contains all changes made since the most recent full backup, so restoring the latest full plus the single most recent differential rebuilds Thursday's data.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA differential holds changes only since the most recent full, not since deployment, so restoring the differential alone omits all baseline data captured by Sunday's full backup.
  • CThat chaining behavior describes incremental backups; differentials each reference the full, so applying every nightly differential is unnecessary and misstates how differentials accumulate changes.
  • DRestore order starts from the full base and then applies the differential; reversing it overwrites recovered changes with older baseline data and corrupts the recovery sequence.
Differential = changes since most recent full; restore = full + latest differential; 220-1202 Obj 4.3
4.3 Given a scenario, implement workstation backup and recovery methods

An organization keeps daily, weekly, monthly, and yearly backup copies with progressively longer retention (dailies for a week, monthlies for a year, yearlies for a decade). This rotation and retention scheme is BEST described as which approach?

Answer
Correct answerA · Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) tiered retention of daily, weekly, monthly, and yearly recovery points

GFS retention keeps layered daily, weekly, monthly, and yearly recovery points held for increasing durations, exactly matching the multi-tier scheme described in the scenario.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BA flat uniform-retention policy contradicts the scenario's different durations per tier; GFS deliberately assigns longer retention to weekly, monthly, and yearly points.
  • CMirroring maintains a live copy without dated historical versions, so it cannot provide the daily-through-yearly recovery points the multi-tier retention scheme is built to keep.
  • DCDP captures changes continuously but is not the scheduled, multi-tier daily/weekly/monthly/yearly retention described; equating it with GFS misidentifies the rotation model in use.
GFS keeps daily/weekly/monthly/yearly recovery points with increasing retention; 220-1202 Obj 4.3
4.3 Given a scenario, implement workstation backup and recovery methods

A backup administrator wants fast short-term restores but also needs inexpensive, off-site copies that survive a site disaster. Which design aligns with common backup-storage guidance?

Answer
Correct answerD · Back up to local disk first for fast short-term recovery, then copy to tape or the cloud for long-term off-site retention

Backing up to local disk for quick restores and then copying to tape or cloud for long-term off-site retention provides both speed and disaster-resilient geographic separation.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AStoring the sole copy on the production host means a server or site disaster destroys both data and backup at once, defeating off-site disaster recovery entirely.
  • BAn on-site-only tape next to the server is fast but is destroyed by the same fire or flood, providing no geographic separation for disaster recovery.
  • CMailboxes are not a managed, secured backup repository; this exposes data, lacks retention control, and is not the disk-then-tape/cloud tiering guidance recommends.
Disk-first for fast restores, then tape/cloud for long-term off-site retention; 220-1202 Obj 4.3
4.3 Given a scenario, implement workstation backup and recovery methods

A backup policy is configured so jobs RUN every 6 hours and each copy is KEPT for 90 days. Which statement correctly distinguishes these two separate settings?

Answer
Correct answerC · The 6-hour interval is the backup schedule/frequency; the 90-day period is the retention policy

The schedule sets how often backups run (every 6 hours) while the retention policy sets how long each copy is kept (90 days); they are independent settings.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AOnly the 90-day value is retention; the 6-hour value is the run frequency, so calling both retention conflates how often backups run with how long they are kept.
  • BThis reverses the definitions; a 90-day interval between jobs and a 6-hour retention would leave almost no recoverable data, which is the opposite of the intent.
  • DFrequency and retention directly determine recovery points and how long they survive; dismissing them as cosmetic ignores how the policy governs available restore points.
Backup schedule = frequency of runs; retention policy = how long copies are kept; 220-1202 Obj 4.3
4.3 Given a scenario, implement workstation backup and recovery methods

Leadership assumes that because nightly backup jobs finish, the company can definitely recover after a disaster. A reviewer is skeptical. Per recovery-planning guidance, what is needed to justify that assumption?

Answer
Correct answerB · Periodically test and exercise restores using realistic scenarios to validate that data can actually be recovered

Recovery guidance emphasizes realistic test scenarios and validating recovery capabilities, so periodically exercising restores is what proves backups will actually recover data.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA job completing does not prove the data is restorable; guidance stresses validating recovery, so treating job completion as proof skips the actual restore verification.
  • CUsing a real disaster as the first test risks discovering unrecoverable backups when it is too late; planning calls for testing recovery before an incident, not during one.
  • DMore frequent backups create more restore points but do not validate integrity or recoverability; frequency cannot substitute for actually testing that a restore succeeds.
Validate recovery by testing restores with realistic scenarios; do not assume backups work; 220-1202 Obj 4.3
4.3 Given a scenario, implement workstation backup and recovery methods

After many incremental backup jobs, an administrator worries the on-disk backup replica may have drifted out of sync with the source data. Which built-in safeguard most directly addresses backup data integrity?

Answer
Correct answerA · Run a consistency check that detects when the backup replica becomes inconsistent with the source and repairs it

A consistency check verifies the replica against the source and corrects drift, directly protecting backup integrity, which is precisely the synchronization concern the admin raised.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BCompression only reduces size; it performs no source-to-replica verification, so it cannot detect or fix the drift between backup and live data described here.
  • CLonger retention keeps more historical points but never validates current replica accuracy, so it does not resolve whether the backup has drifted from the source.
  • DMore frequent incrementals capture changes sooner but do not verify integrity; without a consistency check, an inconsistent replica simply gets updated more often, not validated.
Use a consistency check to detect/repair backup replica inconsistency; verify integrity; 220-1202 Obj 4.3
4.8 Identify the basics of scripting

A technician finds two automation files in a shared folder: deploy.ps1 and report.py. Which statement about these script file types is correct?

Answer
Correct answerC · The .ps1 is a PowerShell script and the .py is a Python script; both are interpreted rather than compiled to a standalone .exe

PowerShell uses the .ps1 script extension and Python uses .py, and both are interpreted scripting languages rather than precompiled standalone executables, matching the files found.

Why the other options are wrong
  • APowerShell and Python scripts are interpreted at runtime rather than compiled to standalone binaries, so calling both precompiled executables misstates how these script types actually run.
  • BBoth Python and PowerShell are cross-platform, so claiming each is locked to a single operating system contradicts their documented availability on multiple platforms.
  • DA .ps1 is a PowerShell script using a different language and engine than .bat command-shell batch files, so equating the two ignores the distinct PowerShell scripting environment.
PowerShell scripts use .ps1, Python uses .py; both are interpreted scripting languages; 220-1202 Obj 4.8
4.8 Identify the basics of scripting

Before allowing PowerShell scripts to run on Windows workstations, a sysadmin reviews the execution policy. Which description of PowerShell execution policy is accurate?

Answer
Correct answerB · It is a safety feature controlling whether scripts run and helps prevent accidentally running malicious scripts, but it is not a hard security boundary

Documentation describes execution policy as a safety feature that controls running scripts and helps prevent malicious execution, while noting users can bypass it, so it is not a security boundary.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AExecution policy governs whether scripts run, not encryption; it does not conceal source code, so describing it as file encryption misrepresents the feature's actual function.
  • CThe policy can be bypassed (for example by pasting script contents at the prompt), so it is explicitly not an unbreakable boundary, making this overstated claim incorrect.
  • DThe Windows default RemoteSigned requires a trusted signature on internet-downloaded scripts, so claiming the default runs any downloaded script unsigned contradicts the shipped behavior.
PowerShell execution policy is a safety feature, not a security boundary; default RemoteSigned; 220-1202 Obj 4.8
4.8 Identify the basics of scripting

A team wants one set of automation scripts that runs the same on Windows, Linux, and macOS without rewriting per operating system. Which choice best supports cross-platform scripting?

Answer
Correct answerD · Use PowerShell or Python, both of which run across Windows, Linux, and macOS

PowerShell and Python both run on Windows, Linux, and macOS, so either supports a single cross-platform script base without rewriting separate code per operating system.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ABatch files target the Windows command shell and do not run natively on macOS or Linux, so choosing .bat for cross-platform work fails outside Windows environments.
  • BVBScript is a legacy Windows technology, not a universal cross-platform standard, so relying on it for Linux and macOS automation does not meet the multi-OS requirement.
  • CCross-platform languages exist, so claiming no script can run across all three operating systems is false and needlessly multiplies maintenance by rewriting per platform.
PowerShell and Python are cross-platform (Windows/Linux/macOS); 220-1202 Obj 4.8
4.6 Explain incident response, licensing, and policy concepts

A workstation is suspected of being compromised and the data on it may later be needed as evidence. Acting as first responder, what should the technician prioritize for that data?

Answer
Correct answerA · Preserve the integrity of the data and collect it soundly before altering, reimaging, or rebuilding the system

Forensic guidance centers on preserving information integrity during collection, so safeguarding the data before any rebuild protects its evidentiary value, which is the first responder's priority.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BReimaging destroys potential evidence and breaks data integrity; prioritizing a quick rebuild over preservation forfeits the very information an investigation would need.
  • CAd hoc copying without integrity controls undermines the soundness of the data and its evidentiary value, contradicting the requirement to preserve integrity during collection.
  • DPulling power can discard volatile data that has investigative value, so an unconditional immediate shutdown can destroy evidence the first responder should have preserved.
First responders preserve data integrity and collect evidence soundly before altering the system; 220-1202 Obj 4.6
4.6 Explain incident response, licensing, and policy concepts

An incident has been contained and systems are back online. Which post-incident activities does NIST incident-response guidance emphasize as part of the response life cycle?

Answer
Correct answerC · Perform required incident reporting and notification, and capture lessons learned to improve future response

NIST guidance includes incident reporting, notification, and lessons learned as response activities, so completing them after containment is the emphasized post-incident step.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ADestroying logs removes the record needed for reporting and learning and can violate retention obligations, contradicting the documentation and notification activities guidance requires.
  • BPost-incident documentation and lessons learned are core to the life cycle, so omitting them after recovery discards the insight that improves future incident response.
  • DReporting and notification may be required to outside parties, so a blanket refusal to notify anyone ignores obligations that the response life cycle expects organizations to meet.
Post-incident activities include reporting/notification and lessons learned; 220-1202 Obj 4.6
4.1 Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with documentation and support systems information management

A newly hired technician needs a single reference that shows how the company's switches, routers, firewalls, and VLAN segments physically and logically interconnect. Which document should the technician pull from the configuration repository?

Answer
Correct answerB · The network topology diagram

A network/baseline diagram documents component connectivity, network topology, and the logical placement of components in the system architecture, exactly what the technician needs.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AAn acceptable use policy governs how employees may use IT resources and behavior expectations; it contains no information about device interconnections, segments, or the logical placement of network components.
  • CAn SLA defines responsibilities and performance commitments between a provider and customer; it does not map how switches, routers, and VLAN segments are physically and logically interconnected.
  • DAn incident report records the details and handling of a specific event after it occurs and does not provide an ongoing reference for how network components interconnect.
Network topology/baseline diagram documentation; 220-1202 Obj 4.1
4.1 Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with documentation and support systems information management

An organization wants one authoritative record that lists every device by serial number, model, assigned user, physical location, software version, and license information, updated as equipment is added or retired. Which best practice does this describe?

Answer
Correct answerC · Asset/inventory management

An asset inventory records system components with details such as serial number, physical location, software version, and license information, and is updated on installs and removals.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA knowledge base stores how-to articles and solutions to recurring problems for technicians and users; it is not designed to track each asset's serial number, owner, location, and license data.
  • BAn SLA sets performance and responsibility commitments between provider and customer and does not serve as the per-device inventory of serial numbers, owners, locations, and licenses.
  • DAn incident report documents what happened during a single event and the response taken; it does not provide an ongoing, comprehensive inventory of all hardware and software assets.
Asset/inventory management (CMDB, inventory lists); 220-1202 Obj 4.1
4.1 Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with documentation and support systems information management

A managed service provider commits in writing to a four-hour response time and 99.9% uptime, defining what each party is responsible for and what performance the customer can expect. Which document captures these commitments?

Answer
Correct answerA · Service level agreement (SLA)

An SLA defines the provider's specific responsibilities, sets customer expectations, and addresses performance levels such as reliability and response times.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BAn AUP states the rules and behavior expected of users when using organizational systems; it does not define a vendor's uptime, response-time, or performance commitments to a customer.
  • CA EULA grants a user the right to use a software product under stated conditions; it is not the contract that defines a provider's service responsibilities and response-time guarantees.
  • DAn NDA obligates parties to keep shared information confidential and addresses secrecy, not service uptime, response times, or measurable performance commitments between provider and customer.
Service level agreement (SLA); 220-1202 Obj 4.1
4.1 Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with documentation and support systems information management

A retailer's point-of-sale systems store, process, and transmit customers' payment card numbers. Which regulatory/compliance standard most directly governs how that cardholder data must be protected?

Answer
Correct answerD · PCI DSS

PCI DSS provides baseline technical and operational requirements to protect payment account data and applies to all entities that store, process, or transmit cardholder data.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AISO 9001 specifies requirements for a quality management system to deliver consistent products and services; it does not establish technical controls for protecting stored or transmitted cardholder data.
  • BHIPAA governs protected health information held by covered healthcare entities and business associates; payment card numbers at a retailer fall outside its scope and protected-data definitions.
  • CISO 14001 addresses an organization's environmental management practices and impacts; it has nothing to do with the technical and operational safeguarding of payment card account data.
Regulatory/compliance documentation (PCI DSS); 220-1202 Obj 4.1
4.1 Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with documentation and support systems information management

A help desk is flooded with tickets and must decide which to work first. Which approach best reflects sound severity/prioritization practice for assigning resources?

Answer
Correct answerC · Rank tickets by functional impact, information impact, and recoverability

Prioritizing by functional impact, information impact, and recoverability lets the team allocate response resources to the most damaging issues first.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AStrict first-come-first-served ordering ignores how badly each issue affects operations and data, so a minor cosmetic request could be handled before a server outage crippling the business.
  • BRanking by requester seniority rather than actual impact lets low-impact executive requests outrank outages that affect many users, misallocating limited response resources during busy periods.
  • DAlphabetical category ordering is arbitrary and unrelated to urgency, so it provides predictable sorting but routinely delays high-impact incidents that happen to fall later in the alphabet.
Ticketing severity/prioritization; 220-1202 Obj 4.1
4.1 Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with documentation and support systems information management

A tier-1 technician has worked a high-impact ticket for an hour but the problem requires database expertise the technician does not have. What is the appropriate ticketing action?

Answer
Correct answerB · Escalate the ticket to the higher-tier team with the needed expertise

Routing a high-impact issue beyond a technician's skills to the appropriate higher-tier team aligns specialist resources to the incident and supports timely resolution.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AClosing an active high-impact issue without a fix abandons the user, hides the unresolved problem from reporting, and prevents the specialist resources needed from ever being engaged.
  • CDeleting the record destroys the documented history and progress notes, forces the user to restart, and still leaves the high-impact problem without the database expertise it requires.
  • DContinuing to work beyond one's competence on a high-impact incident wastes time, prolongs the outage, and withholds the specialized resources that escalation would promptly bring to bear.
Ticketing escalation levels; 220-1202 Obj 4.1
4.6 Explain incident response, licensing, and policy concepts

A developer needs an interpreter they can use, modify, and redistribute (including modified derivative versions) at no royalty cost. Which licensing model fits this requirement?

Answer
Correct answerD · An open-source license such as the Python Software Foundation License

Open-source licenses like the PSF License grant a royalty-free right to reproduce, modify, prepare derivative works, and redistribute the software.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA per-seat commercial subscription charges recurring fees tied to user counts and typically forbids redistribution or modification of the product, conflicting with the royalty-free reuse the developer requires.
  • BA proprietary EULA grants only limited rights to use the software as delivered and generally prohibits modifying source code or redistributing derivative versions, which the developer specifically needs.
  • CA DRM-locked retail license ties the copy to one device and uses technical protection to prevent copying or redistribution, the opposite of the freely modifiable and redistributable software requested.
Open-source vs. commercial/proprietary licensing; 220-1202 Obj 4.6
4.6 Explain incident response, licensing, and policy concepts

A manager claims that because a program is free of charge, it is automatically 'open source.' Which statement correctly describes what an open-source license actually requires?

Answer
Correct answerA · It must include source code and permit modifications and derived works

The Open Source Definition requires that the program include source code and that the license allow modifications and derived works.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BThe Open Source Definition explicitly permits selling the software as part of an aggregate distribution; zero price is not a requirement, so this statement misstates the actual criteria.
  • CRestricting modification and distribution to the original author directly violates the open-source criteria for derived works, which must allow others to modify and redistribute under the same terms.
  • DOpen-source software is distributed under a license that grants specific freedoms while retaining copyright; it does not require relinquishing all rights into the public domain.
Open Source Definition (source code, derived works); 220-1202 Obj 4.6
4.6 Explain incident response, licensing, and policy concepts

During installation of a commercial productivity suite, the user must accept terms that grant limited rights to use the software but forbid copying the code or redistributing it. What is this agreement called, and what does it indicate about the software?

Answer
Correct answerC · An end-user license agreement (EULA) for proprietary software

A EULA for proprietary, commercial software grants limited usage rights while restricting copying and redistribution, and such editions require a valid license to use legally.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AOpen-source licenses grant rights to view, modify, and redistribute source code; terms that forbid copying and redistribution are the opposite, so this misidentifies both the agreement and the model.
  • BA digital certificate cryptographically binds an identity to a key for trust and signing; it is not the contractual usage agreement a user accepts that restricts copying and redistribution.
  • DAn SLA sets performance and responsibility commitments between a provider and customer; it is not the install-time usage agreement that limits the user's rights to copy and redistribute software.
Commercial/proprietary licensing and EULA; 220-1202 Obj 4.6
4.6 Explain incident response, licensing, and policy concepts

An enterprise is deploying Windows to 500 corporate PCs and wants to activate them centrally on its own network rather than entering a separate unique key on every machine. Which licensing approach fits?

Answer
Correct answerB · A volume license activated via the organization's Key Management Service

Volume licensing offers programs tailored to organization size, and KMS lets enterprises activate computers on their own local network without contacting Microsoft per device.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA retail purchase provides one unique product key per copy intended for an individual device, so reusing one retail key across 500 machines is neither permitted nor practical for centralized activation.
  • COEM licensing is performed by the hardware vendor before shipment and is tied to that device's firmware; it does not provide the centralized, network-based activation the enterprise wants to manage itself.
  • DWindows is proprietary software requiring valid licensing and activation; an open-source license does not apply to it, so this option misrepresents how the operating system may be deployed.
Personal vs. enterprise/volume licensing; 220-1202 Obj 4.6
4.6 Explain incident response, licensing, and policy concepts

A user asks what Windows product activation actually accomplishes after installation. Which answer is correct?

Answer
Correct answerD · It confirms the product key/license is valid and the copy is genuine

Activation pairs a valid product key or digital license with the device, confirming the copy is genuine and licensed rather than a fraudulent or non-genuine copy.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AAntivirus definition updates are managed by security software and the OS update service; they are unrelated to product activation, which is about validating licensing rather than malware signatures.
  • BMinimum hardware requirements are checked by setup and compatibility tools before or during installation; activation instead validates the licensing of the copy, not whether the CPU or RAM is sufficient.
  • CFeature currency is handled by Windows Update, not activation; an activated device can still be several versions behind, so equating activation with being fully up to date is incorrect.
Valid vs. non-genuine licensing / activation; 220-1202 Obj 4.6
4.9 Given a scenario, use remote access technologies

An administrator needs to take over the full graphical desktop of a Windows 11 Pro workstation to run GUI tools as if seated in front of it. A colleague notes the target must not be a Windows Home edition. Which remote-access method is being described?

Answer
Correct answerA · Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

RDP delivers a full graphical desktop session and control of a PC; Pro, Enterprise, and Server editions can host it, while Windows Home editions cannot serve as hosts.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BSSH provides an encrypted command-line session for remote administration, not a full graphical desktop takeover, so it does not match the described GUI-control scenario on a Windows workstation.
  • CA VPN only creates a secure network tunnel into a remote network; by itself it does not present or control another machine's graphical desktop, which the administrator specifically needs.
  • DSNMP is used to monitor and collect status from network devices, not to open or control a remote graphical desktop session, so it is unsuited to the described hands-on GUI task.
RDP remote access; 220-1202 Obj 4.9
4.9 Given a scenario, use remote access technologies

An administrator must remotely run command-line maintenance on a headless Linux server over the network and wants an encrypted alternative to the legacy, plaintext telnet protocol. Which remote-access method should be used?

Answer
Correct answerC · Secure Shell (SSH)

SSH provides encrypted command-line remote administration and, unlike telnet, has built-in support for robust encryption and authentication of the session.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATelnet transmits its session, including credentials, in cleartext with no encryption, which is exactly the insecure legacy behavior the administrator is trying to replace for command-line access.
  • BRDP is built to deliver a graphical Windows desktop session; it is not the standard tool for encrypted command-line administration of a headless Linux server and is not the telnet replacement here.
  • DFTP is designed to transfer files and does not provide an interactive remote administration shell; it also transmits credentials in cleartext, so it neither fits the task nor improves security.
SSH remote access; 220-1202 Obj 4.9
4.9 Given a scenario, use remote access technologies

A teleworker on a home internet connection must securely reach internal file servers and applications on the corporate network as though connected locally. Which remote-access technology provides this?

Answer
Correct answerB · Virtual private network (VPN)

A VPN builds an encrypted tunnel over the public internet so a user tunnel can reach organization resources as if on a dedicated link to the internal network.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AExposing RDP directly to the public internet controls a single host and is a well-known attack target; it does not give the user secure, network-level access to internal servers and applications.
  • CAn SSH session to a single server provides command-line access to that host only; it does not place the teleworker's computer on the corporate network to reach multiple internal file servers and apps.
  • DQuick Assist is an attended screen-sharing tool for helping a person at their device; it does not connect the user's machine to the corporate network to access internal servers and applications.
VPN remote access; 220-1202 Obj 4.9
4.9 Given a scenario, use remote access technologies

A help desk agent needs to view and, with permission, control a non-technical home user's Windows screen for a one-time support session. The user will read back a short code and must click Allow before any sharing begins. Which built-in tool fits best?

Answer
Correct answerD · Quick Assist

Quick Assist lets a helper view, annotate, or take control after the user enters a time-limited security code and selects Allow, ideal for ad-hoc remote help.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ARDP requires the host to be configured for incoming connections with an allowed account and a reachable port, which is impractical for an ad-hoc session with a non-technical home user.
  • BSSH offers an encrypted command line for administrators, not a consent-based graphical screen-sharing session, so it cannot let the agent view and control the home user's desktop as described.
  • CA VPN only tunnels the user's device onto a network; it neither displays the user's screen to the agent nor provides the code-based, permission-gated control the support session requires.
Quick Assist / Microsoft Remote Assistance screen sharing; 220-1202 Obj 4.9
4.5 Summarize environmental impacts and local environmental controls

A small server must keep running for a few minutes during a power outage so it can complete transactions and shut down gracefully. Which device provides this ride-through time?

Answer
Correct answerA · An uninterruptible power supply (UPS)

A UPS has an internal battery that keeps connected equipment running for at least a short time when primary power is lost, allowing a graceful shutdown.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BA surge protector only diverts brief over-voltage spikes away from equipment; it stores no energy, so when utility power fails the connected server loses power immediately with no ride-through time.
  • CA power strip merely multiplies outlets from one source and provides neither surge suppression nor stored energy, so an outage cuts power to the server instantly with no opportunity to shut down.
  • DA splitter only branches a connection and supplies no battery or power conditioning, so it cannot keep the server energized during an outage or enable an orderly shutdown.
Power: UPS vs. surge protector vs. power strip; 220-1202 Obj 4.5
4.5 Summarize environmental impacts and local environmental controls

A server room houses concentrated computing equipment, and management wants to prevent conditions that could degrade hardware availability. Which local environmental control most directly addresses this risk?

Answer
Correct answerC · Maintaining and monitoring temperature and humidity levels

Maintaining and monitoring temperature and humidity within acceptable levels in the facility where the system resides protects equipment availability, since poor conditions can adversely affect systems.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AAn ESD strap protects components from static discharge during hands-on handling; it does nothing to regulate the ambient room conditions that affect equipment running continuously in the server room.
  • BA UPS addresses power continuity during outages but does not regulate ambient temperature or moisture, so it cannot prevent overheating or humidity-related damage to the concentrated equipment.
  • DAn acceptable use policy governs user behavior with IT resources; displaying it provides no physical regulation of the heat and moisture conditions that threaten densely packed server hardware.
Environmental controls: temperature/humidity; 220-1202 Obj 4.5
4.5 Summarize environmental impacts and local environmental controls

A data center already keeps its temperature and humidity within set ranges, but staff worry they will not notice if conditions suddenly drift to harmful levels overnight. Which additional environmental control addresses this gap?

Answer
Correct answerB · Environmental monitoring with alarms and notifications

Environmental control monitoring that issues an alarm or notification of harmful changes lets staff respond promptly to drift, even when no one is present.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA change management board reviews and authorizes proposed system changes; it is a procedural control and cannot detect or warn staff about real-time temperature or humidity excursions in the facility.
  • CA locked cabinet adds physical access security to protect against tampering or theft; it provides no sensing of climate conditions and cannot alert staff when temperature or humidity moves out of range.
  • DOff-site backup rotation protects data recoverability after loss; it does nothing to observe live facility conditions or notify staff of overnight temperature and humidity excursions in the data center.
Environmental monitoring with alarms; 220-1202 Obj 4.5
4.2 Given a scenario, implement workstation backup and recovery and change-management best practices

A technician wants to upgrade the operating system on a production database server that several business applications depend on. Before performing the upgrade, which change-management action is required?

Answer
Correct answerB · Submit the change for review and approval by the change/configuration control board

Configuration change control requires that proposed changes be tracked, reviewed, and approved or disapproved by a configuration control board (CCB) or change advisory board before implementation in production.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATiming alone is a scheduling detail and does not satisfy the formal review requirement; a change affecting dependent production applications must still be evaluated and authorized before it proceeds at all.
  • CTrust in the vendor does not remove the need for impact analysis and authorization; vendor-sourced upgrades can still break dependent applications and must pass through the documented approval process first.
  • DA major OS upgrade on a multi-application production server is not low-risk routine maintenance; assuming it is bypasses the required review and logging that change control mandates for such impactful changes.
NIST SP 800-128 Guide for Security-Focused Configuration Management of Information Systems
4.2 Given a scenario, implement workstation backup and recovery and change-management best practices

A team is preparing an approved firmware change for a fleet of routers. Management asks what must be ready so the devices can be returned to their prior known-good state if the change causes problems after deployment.

Answer
Correct answerC · A documented rollback (back-out) plan

Change control includes provisions for reversing changes; a documented back-out/rollback plan with the saved baseline lets the team restore the prior known-good configuration if the deployed change fails.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AAn impact analysis quantifies consequences and helps justify the change, but it provides no procedure or saved configuration for actually reversing the firmware change once it has already been applied.
  • BUser acceptance documents stakeholder agreement about timing and scope, yet it contains no technical steps or baseline needed to undo the change and recover the previous working configuration.
  • DA topology diagram records device locations and interconnections for reference, but it offers no procedure to revert firmware or recover the earlier configuration after a failed change.
NIST SP 800-128 Guide for Security-Focused Configuration Management of Information Systems
4.3 Explain common safety procedures (backup methods context)

An administrator wants the simplest possible restore after a failure, needing to combine the fewest backup sets, and is willing to accept longer nightly backup windows. Which schedule best meets that recovery goal?

Answer
Correct answerA · A weekly full backup plus a nightly differential backup

Each differential captures everything changed since the last full, so recovery requires only the last full plus a single differential set, giving the simplest, fastest restore the administrator wants.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BIncrementals minimize backup time but complicate restores, because recovery must apply the last full and then every incremental in sequence, which conflicts with the goal of combining the fewest sets.
  • CWithout a full baseline there is no complete starting image to restore from, and chaining many incrementals together is the slowest and most fragile recovery path possible.
  • DMerged incremental chains still depend on many dependent sets, and skipping restore validation leaves recoverability unproven, neither of which satisfies the request for the simplest reliable restore.
NIST SP 800-34 Rev. 1 Contingency Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems
4.3 Explain common safety procedures (alternate site/recovery context)

An online retailer determines its order system must resume within a few minutes after a disaster destroys the primary data center, with virtually no setup delay. Which alternate-site strategy meets this near-zero recovery-time objective?

Answer
Correct answerD · A hot site

A hot site is fully equipped and kept current with near-real-time data replication, so it can take over operations almost immediately, satisfying the very short recovery-time objective.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA cold site provides only the facility shell, so staff must deliver, install, and configure all equipment and restore data, producing recovery times of days that miss a minutes-long objective.
  • BOffsite storage protects backup copies but is not a processing location; data still has to be transported and restored onto rebuilt systems before operations can resume.
  • CA warm site shortens recovery compared with a cold site, yet its remaining configuration and data-restore steps typically take hours to days, which still exceeds a near-immediate objective.
NIST SP 800-34 Rev. 1 Contingency Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems
4.4 Given a scenario, use common safety procedures

Before using an unfamiliar contact-cleaning solvent on equipment, a technician wants the authoritative document listing the product's hazards, required personal protective equipment, safe handling, and disposal guidance. Which document provides this?

Answer
Correct answerB · The product's safety data sheet (SDS)

An SDS uses a standardized 16-section format covering hazards, first aid, safe handling and storage, exposure controls and PPE, and disposal, exactly the chemical-safety information the technician needs.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AAn acceptable use policy addresses employee conduct with IT systems and data, not the physical and health hazards, protective equipment, or disposal instructions for a specific chemical product.
  • CAsset records track inventory and ownership details for hardware; they contain no information about chemical hazards, protective equipment, or how to handle and dispose of a solvent safely.
  • DA topology diagram documents network device connections and layout, which is entirely unrelated to the handling precautions, PPE, and disposal guidance required for a hazardous cleaning chemical.
OSHA Hazard Communication Standard 29 CFR 1910.1200(g) and OSHA Safety Data Sheets brief (OSHA 3514)
4.5 Summarize environmental impacts and local environmental controls

During a laptop refresh, a technician removes a stack of intact used lithium-ion batteries from retired units. Which disposal method follows recommended environmental practice for these batteries?

Answer
Correct answerD · Recycle them through a battery collection or recycling program

Used lithium-ion batteries are broadly captured by universal waste battery rules and should be sent to a battery recycler or collection point rather than discarded in the trash.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ADiscarding lithium-ion batteries in ordinary trash is discouraged because they can cause fires in waste streams and contain materials that should be recovered rather than landfilled.
  • BReleasing battery contents to drains is unsafe and improper, and battery casings do not belong in standard paper recycling; this mishandles a regulated, potentially hazardous item.
  • CBurning lithium-ion batteries is hazardous and can cause explosions and toxic emissions, and it is not an approved disposal route; the residue still cannot lawfully go to general waste.
U.S. EPA guidance on used lithium-ion batteries and universal waste
4.6 Explain the importance of prohibited content/activity and privacy, licensing, and policy concepts

A running workstation is suspected of an active compromise, and its data may later be needed as evidence. To preserve the most fragile evidence, what should the responder collect first while the system is still powered on?

Answer
Correct answerC · The contents of system memory (RAM) and other volatile data

The order of volatility directs responders to capture the most volatile data first; RAM, running processes, and active connections vanish on shutdown, so they must be acquired before less volatile disk data.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ADisk data is comparatively non-volatile and persists after shutdown, so imaging it first risks losing memory-resident evidence that disappears the moment the system state changes or power is cut.
  • BOffsite backups are among the least volatile sources and remain available later; prioritizing them ignores live data that exists only while the machine is currently running.
  • DLogs shipped to a separate server are persistent and can be retrieved afterward; collecting them first wastes the narrow window for capturing memory-resident artifacts that cannot be recovered later.
NIST SP 800-86 Guide to Integrating Forensic Techniques into Incident Response
4.6 Explain the importance of prohibited content/activity and privacy, licensing, and policy concepts

After collecting a forensic image from a compromised laptop that may be used in a legal proceeding, a technician must ensure the evidence will be admissible. Which practice most directly preserves that admissibility?

Answer
Correct answerA · Maintain documented chain of custody for the evidence

Recording who collected, handled, transferred, and stored the evidence, with times and signatures, preserves integrity and demonstrates the data was not altered, which is essential for legal admissibility.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BDistributing uncontrolled copies through email creates unverified duplicates and breaks tracking of the original, undermining integrity rather than proving the evidence was handled and preserved properly.
  • CRestoring and exploring evidence on live hardware can modify timestamps and data, jeopardizing integrity; analysis should occur on verified copies under controlled, documented handling procedures.
  • DAltering the source system by deleting accounts destroys potential evidence and changes the device's state, which damages the case instead of preserving the data for proceedings.
NIST SP 800-86 Guide to Integrating Forensic Techniques into Incident Response
4.6 Explain the importance of prohibited content/activity and privacy, licensing, and policy concepts

A developer is evaluating whether a tool's license qualifies as open source under the Open Source Definition. Which statement correctly describes an open source license?

Answer
Correct answerC · It allows users to modify the source code and redistribute it, and the software may still be sold

The Open Source Definition requires free redistribution (including for sale), availability of source code, and permission to make and distribute modifications and derived works under the same terms.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AOpen source concerns freedoms in the license, not price; the definition explicitly forbids restricting sale and permits charging a fee, so 'no cost' is not what makes software open source.
  • BMere visibility of source is insufficient; the Open Source Definition requires that the license allow modifications and derived works, so a no-modification, look-only license is not open source.
  • DThe definition prohibits discrimination against fields of endeavor, so a license that bars business or other specific uses fails the criteria and cannot be considered open source.
Open Source Initiative — The Open Source Definition and OSI FAQ
4.9 Given a scenario, use remote access technologies

An administrator must run command-line configuration on a managed switch across an untrusted network segment and needs the login credentials and commands protected from eavesdropping. Which remote-access method should be used?

Answer
Correct answerB · Secure Shell (SSH)

SSH provides an encrypted client-server channel for remote command-line administration, protecting credentials and commands from network eavesdropping, which is why it is the recommended replacement for Telnet.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ATelnet transmits logins, passwords, and commands in cleartext with no encryption, so anyone capturing the traffic can read the credentials; its broad legacy support does not make it safe here.
  • CRDP delivers a Windows graphical desktop and is not how administrators reach a switch's text command line; the device exposes a CLI, making a graphical-remoting protocol the wrong tool.
  • DAttended screen-sharing tools target helping a person at a graphical desktop, not unattended command-line management of headless network gear, so they do not fit this administrative task.
Microsoft Learn OpenSSH for Windows overview and NISTIR 7966 Security of Interactive and Automated Access Management Using Secure Shell (SSH)

Want all domains under exam conditions? Take a full 90-question mock →

Ad slot · in-content rectangle (336×280 / responsive)Below the quiz card, inside the article body — well clear of answer buttons

About this domain

Domain 4, Operational Procedures, is 22% of A+ Core 2 (220-1202). It covers documentation and change management, backups, safety and environmental controls, privacy and compliance, professional communication, and basic scripting. Questions ask you to apply the right procedure for a situation.

Anchor on the practical rules — the 3-2-1 backup rule and incremental vs differential, ESD precautions (antistatic strap, grounding), fire-extinguisher classes, regulated-data handling (PII, PCI DSS, GDPR), the change-management process with a rollback plan, and when to use each remote-access method.

What Domain 4 covers

Domain 4 quick glossary

The terms that show up most on Domain 4 questions — one line each.

3-2-1 ruleKeep 3 copies of data on 2 media types with 1 copy off-site.
Incremental backupBacks up only data changed since the last backup of any type.
Differential backupBacks up all data changed since the last full backup.
ESDElectrostatic discharge — guard against it with a strap and grounding.
Change managementReviewing, approving, and documenting changes with a rollback plan.
PIIPersonally identifiable information requiring protection.
Chain of custodyDocumented handling of evidence to preserve its integrity.
RDPRemote Desktop Protocol for graphical remote access on port 3389.

Keep going

Practice the other domains, or go deeper with the full study materials.