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CompTIA A+ Core 2 Domain 2: Security

25% of the 220-1202 exam
Practice — Domain 2
2.3 Detect, remove, and prevent malware

An accountant reports that every document on her workstation now has an unfamiliar extension and will not open, and a full-screen message demands payment in cryptocurrency to restore access to the files. Which type of malware best fits this behavior?

Answer
Correct answerC · Ransomware

Ransomware is malware designed to encrypt files on a device so they become unusable, after which the actors demand a ransom in exchange for decryption, matching the encrypted documents and cryptocurrency demand described.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis guess fixes on data theft, but spyware is software secretly installed to covertly gather information without the user's knowledge, not to encrypt files and openly demand a payment to restore them.
  • BThis choice assumes stealthy persistence, yet a rootkit conceals an attacker's activity and maintains privileged access; it does not lock files behind encryption and post a visible ransom demand.
  • DThis option focuses on rapid spreading, but a worm is defined by self-propagation across networks; encrypting local files and demanding payment is not what characterizes a worm by itself.
Ransomware encrypts files then demands payment to decrypt — 220-1202 Obj 2.3
2.3 Detect, remove, and prevent malware

After a breach, investigators find that a compromised computer hides specific running processes and files from the operating system's own tools, so the device cannot be trusted to report what is actually running, and the attacker has retained privileged access for months. Which malware type is described?

Answer
Correct answerB · Rootkit

A rootkit conceals the attacker's activities and lets the attacker maintain root-level access by intercepting and changing standard operating-system processes, so the host can no longer be trusted to report itself accurately.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis pick assumes harmless advertising behavior, but adware displays unwanted ads and does not subvert operating-system reporting or grant an attacker long-term concealed administrative control over the host.
  • CThis option narrows to captured keystrokes, yet a keylogger records typed input rather than hiding processes from the OS and preserving stealthy root-level access across long periods of time.
  • DThis choice expects encrypted files and a payment demand; concealment of processes and persistent hidden privileged access is not how ransomware announces itself to its victim.
Rootkit conceals activity and maintains privileged access by altering OS processes — 220-1202 Obj 2.3
2.3 Detect, remove, and prevent malware

A user downloads what appears to be a legitimate free PDF utility, but after installation an attacker gains remote access to the machine. The program does not attach to other files and cannot copy itself to other computers on its own. Which classification fits this threat?

Answer
Correct answerD · Trojan

A Trojan appears to have a useful function while hiding a malicious one and, unlike viruses, cannot spread on its own, matching the disguised utility that quietly grants the attacker remote access.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis answer assumes self-propagation, but a worm spreads itself across networks without help; the described program cannot copy itself on its own, which rules a worm out.
  • BThis choice expects code that attaches to and infects other files; the described program does not attach to other files, so the defining behavior of a virus is absent here.
  • CThis option points to code that infects the startup sector and runs before the OS loads, which does not match a downloaded application that merely poses as a useful PDF tool.
Trojan poses as a useful app and cannot self-replicate — 220-1202 Obj 2.3
2.3 Detect, remove, and prevent malware

Overnight, a single infection spread to dozens of computers across the company LAN by exploiting a network service vulnerability. No user opened an attachment or ran a file, and the malicious code is not attached to any host program. Which malware type is responsible?

Answer
Correct answerA · Worm

A worm self-replicates and propagates through a network onto other computer systems without requiring a host program or any user intervention, which matches the unattended LAN-wide spread described.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BThis pick overlooks that a virus cannot run by itself and requires its host program to be executed; the unattended spread without any user action does not fit a virus.
  • CThis choice assumes a disguised application, but a Trojan cannot spread on its own and relies on being downloaded or installed, so it cannot account for automatic LAN-wide propagation.
  • DThis option describes code that triggers on a condition or date to deliver a payload; it explains timing, not the self-propagation across many networked computers seen here.
Worm self-propagates over a network with no host program or user action — 220-1202 Obj 2.3
2.3 Detect, remove, and prevent malware

A help-desk analyst suspects that software was secretly installed on a kiosk to capture everything users type, including usernames and passwords, and quietly send the collected data to an attacker without the users' knowledge. Which term best describes software that records typed input this way?

Answer
Correct answerC · Keylogger

A keylogger is a form of spyware that records the keystrokes a user types and is secretly installed to gather information without the user's knowledge, matching the captured credentials described.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis choice emphasizes hiding from the operating system, but the defining purpose here is capturing typed input, not concealing processes and maintaining covert privileged access to the host.
  • BThis pick expects encrypted files and an extortion demand; silently recording keystrokes and exfiltrating them is not the openly disruptive behavior that defines ransomware.
  • DThis option assumes stolen processing power used to mine cryptocurrency, which consumes resources rather than recording typed credentials and quietly transmitting them to an attacker as described.
Keylogger is spyware that secretly records typed keystrokes — 220-1202 Obj 2.3
2.4 Social engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities

Several employees receive an unsolicited email that appears to come from the company's bank, warning of an account problem and linking to a site that asks them to confirm their login credentials. The link's true destination differs from the displayed text. Which attack is this?

Answer
Correct answerB · Phishing

Phishing uses email or malicious websites to solicit personal information by posing as a trustworthy organization, exactly matching the spoofed bank email and the credential-harvesting link described.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis choice names a voice-based approach, but the scenario uses an email and a fraudulent website rather than a phone call, so it does not fit the voice-communication channel that vishing relies on.
  • CThis option exploits SMS text messages, but the described attack arrives by email with a malicious web link rather than a text message, so smishing does not fit the channel used here.
  • DThis pick names malware that conceals an attacker's activity on a host; it is not a social-engineering email campaign that tricks users into entering credentials on a fake site.
Phishing uses email or malicious sites to solicit info by posing as a trusted org — 220-1202 Obj 2.4
2.4 Social engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities

An employee receives a phone call from someone claiming to be from the IT department, who uses a spoofed caller ID and a sense of urgency to convince the employee to read back their network password over the phone. Which social-engineering attack is this?

Answer
Correct answerD · Vishing

Vishing is the social-engineering approach that leverages voice communication, often with a spoofed caller ID, to entice a victim to divulge sensitive information such as a password by phone.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis choice assumes the email or malicious-website channel; the scenario is conducted entirely by telephone, so the email-based solicitation that characterizes ordinary phishing does not apply here.
  • BThis pick relies on SMS text messages to deliver the lure, but the attacker here is speaking on a live phone call rather than sending a text, so smishing does not match the method.
  • CThis option names software secretly installed to gather information; the attack described is a manipulative phone conversation, not malicious code running on the victim's device.
Vishing leverages voice communication, often with spoofed caller ID — 220-1202 Obj 2.4
2.2 Wireless security protocols and authentication methods

A security policy requires that, in addition to entering a password, users must approve a prompt on a registered authenticator app before they can sign in. Which security concept does combining a password with the app approval satisfy?

Answer
Correct answerA · Multifactor authentication

Combining something you know (the password) with something you have (the registered authenticator) presents two different factors, which is exactly what multi-factor authentication requires for successful authentication.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BThis choice confuses convenience with assurance; single sign-on lets one login grant access to many applications, but it does not by itself require a second, different authentication factor.
  • CThis pick names limiting a user's rights to only what their job needs; it governs authorization levels and does not describe requiring two distinct factors to verify identity at login.
  • DThis option describes trusting identities across organizations or domains; it addresses where credentials are validated, not whether two separate authentication factors are presented when signing in.
MFA requires two or more different factors: know, have, are — 220-1202 Obj 2.2
2.2 Wireless security protocols and authentication methods

A small business is replacing its wireless security configuration and wants the strongest currently certified option, one that is mandatory on new Wi-Fi CERTIFIED devices, requires Protected Management Frames, and improves resistance to password guessing over the pre-shared-key approach. Which should they choose?

Answer
Correct answerC · WPA3

WPA3 is mandatory for Wi-Fi CERTIFIED devices, requires use of Protected Management Frames, and increases protection against password-guessing attempts, making it the strongest currently certified wireless security choice.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis choice selects the oldest scheme, which has well-known exploits dating to 2001 and is an outdated legacy protocol that modern Wi-Fi security explicitly disallows, so it is far from the strongest.
  • BThis pick uses TKIP, an early protocol that bridged WEP's gap but later proved vulnerable; it is weaker than the AES-based successors and is not the strongest certified option available.
  • DThis option is still strong with AES, but it predates WPA3 and lacks mandatory Protected Management Frames and WPA3's improved password-guessing resistance, so it is not the strongest option available.
WPA3 is the strongest certified Wi-Fi option, mandatory and requiring PMF — 220-1202 Obj 2.2
2.5 Microsoft Windows OS security settings

An administrator wants to protect data on company laptops so that if a laptop is lost or stolen, the entire operating-system volume is encrypted and the data cannot be read by removing the drive and attaching it to another computer. Which Windows feature is designed for this?

Answer
Correct answerB · BitLocker

BitLocker is a Windows security feature that provides encryption for entire volumes, addressing data theft or exposure from lost, stolen, or improperly decommissioned devices, matching the whole-volume requirement.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis choice encrypts individual files on an NTFS volume, but it does not encrypt the entire volume, so unencrypted areas and system files can remain readable and the whole-drive requirement is unmet.
  • CThis pick provides real-time antimalware protection that detects and removes threats, but scanning for malware is not the same as encrypting a drive, so it cannot protect data on a physically stolen disk.
  • DThis option prompts for consent before administrative changes, but it governs privilege elevation rather than encrypting stored data, so it offers no protection if the drive is removed and read elsewhere.
BitLocker encrypts entire volumes to protect lost or stolen devices — 220-1202 Obj 2.5
2.5 Microsoft Windows OS security settings

On a shared Windows workstation formatted with NTFS, a user wants to encrypt only a few specific sensitive files in her profile so other users of the same computer cannot read them, without encrypting the whole drive. Which built-in feature provides per-file cryptographic protection using a public-key system?

Answer
Correct answerD · Encrypting File System (EFS)

EFS provides cryptographic protection of individual files on NTFS volumes using a public-key system, matching the need to encrypt selected files without encrypting the entire drive.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis choice encrypts entire volumes to protect a lost or stolen device, but it is not aimed at protecting selected files from other users who log on interactively to the same running computer.
  • BThis pick strengthens login by requiring two factors, but authentication verifies identity at sign-in and does not encrypt the contents of individual files at rest on the disk.
  • CThis option prompts for administrative consent before system changes; it manages privilege elevation and provides no cryptographic protection for specific files a user wants to keep private.
EFS encrypts individual files on NTFS via a public-key system — 220-1202 Obj 2.5
2.5 Microsoft Windows OS security settings

A technician sets up a new Windows 11 laptop that has no third-party security software installed. The user needs built-in, real-time protection that detects and removes malware such as viruses and worms. Which Windows component already provides this?

Answer
Correct answerA · Microsoft Defender Antivirus

Microsoft Defender Antivirus is built into Windows and is a major component of next-generation protection, providing real-time protection that detects and removes malware, satisfying the built-in requirement.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BThis choice encrypts entire volumes to protect data at rest on a lost device, but it is a drive-encryption feature and does not scan for or remove viruses and worms in real time.
  • CThis pick prompts for consent before administrative changes to limit malicious code's privileges, but it is not an antivirus engine and does not detect or remove malware files.
  • DThis option cryptographically protects individual files on NTFS, yet it provides no malware detection or removal, so it cannot supply the real-time anti-malware protection the user requires.
Microsoft Defender Antivirus is the built-in, real-time anti-malware in Windows — 220-1202 Obj 2.5
2.5 Microsoft Windows OS security settings

On a Windows workstation, whenever a standard user or an administrator tries to perform a task that changes system settings, a prompt appears requesting consent or administrator credentials before the change proceeds, so malware cannot silently make system changes. Which Windows feature produces this behavior?

Answer
Correct answerC · User Account Control

User Account Control protects the operating system from unauthorized changes by requiring consent or credentials, so apps run as a standard user unless the user approves elevation to administrative rights.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis choice protects data by encrypting entire volumes; it secures data at rest on a lost device and does not generate consent prompts before system configuration changes are allowed.
  • BThis pick detects and removes malware in real time, but it is a scanning engine and is not the component that prompts for consent or credentials before privileged system changes are made.
  • DThis option encrypts individual files on NTFS using a public-key system; it secures file contents and does not display elevation prompts when system-level changes are attempted.
UAC prompts for consent/credentials before privileged system changes — 220-1202 Obj 2.5
2.7 Mobile and embedded device security

An employee's company iPhone is stolen. The administrator wants assurance that, even if the thief erases the device, it cannot be reactivated and used by someone else without the owner's Apple Account credentials. Which feature provides this protection?

Answer
Correct answerB · Activation Lock

Activation Lock requires the owner's Apple Account password before anyone can turn off Find My, erase the device, or reactivate and use it, deterring reactivation even after a remote erase.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis choice preserves a copy of data in the cloud, which aids recovery of information, but backing up data does not by itself stop a thief from reactivating and using the erased phone.
  • CThis pick locks the screen against casual access, but a thief who fully erases the device would clear the existing passcode, so a passcode alone does not prevent later reactivation.
  • DThis option keeps stored data confidential, yet encryption protects data rather than blocking reactivation; an erased, encrypted phone could still be set up as new without an ownership check.
Activation Lock requires Apple Account credentials to reactivate even after erase — 220-1202 Obj 2.7
2.4 Explain common social engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities

A company's public web server suddenly becomes unreachable, and logs show an overwhelming flood of traffic arriving simultaneously from thousands of compromised devices scattered across the internet. Which attack best fits this behavior?

Answer
Correct answerC · Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS)

Multiple compromised machines acting together to flood one target until legitimate users can no longer reach it is exactly what a distributed denial-of-service attack does.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis choice describes secretly sitting between two parties to read or alter their traffic, but an on-path attack intercepts a conversation quietly and does not knock a public server offline with traffic volume.
  • BThis option targets a database by passing crafted input into a query, yet SQL injection manipulates back-end data and is unrelated to overwhelming a server using junk traffic from many remote hosts.
  • DThis guess focuses on guessing credentials by trying many combinations, but a brute-force attack aims to log in to an account and does not flood a server to deny service to everyone else.
DDoS uses many compromised machines to flood a target until legitimate users cannot reach it — 220-1202 Obj 2.4
2.4 Explain common social engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities

On an unsecured coffee-shop Wi-Fi network, an attacker secretly relays the data between a customer's laptop and a banking site, able to read and even modify it while each side believes it is talking directly to the other. Which attack is this?

Answer
Correct answerB · On-path (man-in-the-middle) attack

Positioning between two parties to intercept and possibly alter data in transit, while each believes it talks directly to the other, defines an on-path attack.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis option fixates on guessing credentials by trying many combinations, but a brute-force attack hammers a login and does not quietly relay and alter traffic flowing between two communicating endpoints.
  • CThis choice describes making a service unavailable by flooding it with traffic from many hosts, which disrupts availability rather than secretly intercepting and modifying data passing between two parties.
  • DThis guess injects browser-side scripts into a trusted web page so they run in a victim's browser, which is a web-application flaw and not an attacker relaying traffic between user and server.
An on-path/man-in-the-middle attacker sits between two parties to intercept and alter their traffic — 220-1202 Obj 2.4
2.4 Explain common social engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities

A technician finds that packets reaching an internal filter carry a forged source IP address so they appear to originate from a trusted internal host, letting the sender slip past a rule. Which technique describes faking that source address?

Answer
Correct answerD · Spoofing

Faking the sending address of a transmission so it appears to come from a trusted source, in order to gain illegitimate access or evade a filter, is spoofing.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis option is a social-engineering email tactic that tricks a person into revealing information by posing as a trustworthy organization, not the act of forging a packet's source address to fool a network filter.
  • BThis choice abuses unsanitized input to manipulate database queries, so SQL injection attacks a web application's data layer and has nothing to do with falsifying the source address inside network packets.
  • CThis guess injects malicious scripts into a trusted website that execute in other users' browsers, which is unrelated to crafting packets with a fake source address to impersonate a trusted host.
Spoofing fakes a transmission's source address to appear to come from a trusted system — 220-1202 Obj 2.4
2.4 Explain common social engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities

A penetration tester types ' OR '1'='1 into a website's login field, and the back-end query is altered so the database returns every row in the user table. Which attack does this demonstrate?

Answer
Correct answerA · SQL injection

Inserting a crafted SQL query through unsanitized input so the database executes attacker-controlled commands and returns or changes data is the definition of SQL injection.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BThis option also involves injection, but cross-site scripting injects browser-side scripts that run in other users' browsers rather than SQL commands that manipulate the application's back-end database directly.
  • CThis choice relays and alters traffic between two communicating parties, so an on-path attack intercepts data in transit instead of supplying malicious input that rewrites a server's predefined database query.
  • DThis guess tries many credential combinations to log in, but brute forcing is about guessing passwords and not about feeding crafted SQL through an input field to manipulate the database.
SQL injection sends crafted SQL through input so the database runs attacker-controlled queries — 220-1202 Obj 2.4
2.4 Explain common social engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities

An attacker posts a comment containing a script to a trusted forum; when other visitors load the page, the script runs in their browsers and quietly forwards their session cookies to the attacker. Which attack is this?

Answer
Correct answerC · Cross-site scripting (XSS)

Injecting a malicious script into a trusted website so it executes in other users' browsers and can steal cookies or session tokens is cross-site scripting.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis option injects SQL into a database query, but here the malicious code runs inside victims' browsers to steal session cookies rather than manipulating data stored in the application's back-end database.
  • BThis choice means faking a source address to impersonate a trusted system, which does not match planting a script in a web page so it executes inside other users' browsers.
  • DThis guess overwhelms a target with traffic from many hosts to deny availability, which is unrelated to embedding a browser-side script in a page to compromise individual users' sessions.
XSS injects scripts into a trusted site that run in victims' browsers and can steal session tokens — 220-1202 Obj 2.4
2.4 Explain common social engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities

Reviewing failed logins, an analyst sees an attacker trying a curated wordlist of common real words and passwords leaked in prior breaches, rather than working through every possible character combination. Which attack best matches this method?

Answer
Correct answerB · Dictionary attack

Using a predetermined wordlist of likely passwords, such as common words and credentials from past breaches, to guess a password is a dictionary attack.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis is the trap: a pure brute-force attack systematically tries every possible combination of characters, whereas the scenario uses a curated list of likely real words and leaked passwords instead.
  • CThis choice fakes a transmission's source address to impersonate a trusted system, which has nothing to do with submitting a list of likely passwords to a login form to guess credentials.
  • DThis guess tricks a user into handing over a password through a deceptive message, but the scenario describes an automated guessing program submitting wordlist entries rather than social-engineering the victim.
A dictionary attack guesses passwords from a wordlist of likely values; brute force tries all combinations — 220-1202 Obj 2.4
2.4 Explain common social engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities

A caller phones the help desk claiming to be a new repair technician, offers a believable cover story, and over a friendly chat persuades an employee to read out their account password. Which category of attack is this?

Answer
Correct answerD · Social engineering

Deceiving a person by impersonating someone trustworthy to gain their confidence and trick them into revealing sensitive information such as a password is social engineering.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis option overwhelms a system with traffic from many hosts to deny availability, which is a technical flooding attack and not a human deception used to talk an employee out of a password.
  • BThis choice manipulates a database through crafted input in a web form, so it exploits software rather than persuading a person to voluntarily reveal their credentials over the phone.
  • CThis guess tries many password combinations against a login automatically, but the scenario relies on building trust and a false identity to get the victim to disclose the password.
Social engineering uses human deception and a false identity to trick someone into revealing information — 220-1202 Obj 2.4
2.1 Summarize various security measures and their purposes

A laptop is configured so users unlock it with a fingerprint or facial recognition instead of typing anything. Which authentication factor category does this represent?

Answer
Correct answerA · Something you are

A fingerprint or facial scan is a measurable physical characteristic of a person, which is the authentication factor category described as something you are.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BThis option refers to a physical possession such as a smart card, security key, or token device, but a fingerprint or face is an inherent body trait rather than an object you carry.
  • CThis choice covers secrets you memorize like a password or PIN, whereas a biometric is read from your body and is not knowledge you recall and type in.
  • DThis guess names a convenience method for accessing many applications with one login, which is not an authentication factor category and does not describe what a fingerprint or face scan is.
Biometrics (fingerprint, face) are the 'something you are' authentication factor — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.1 Summarize various security measures and their purposes

After signing in once with one set of credentials, an employee can open the company email, CRM, and file share all day without being prompted to authenticate again for each one. Which capability provides this?

Answer
Correct answerB · Single sign-on (SSO)

Using one account and its credentials to access multiple independent applications without re-authenticating for each is single sign-on.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis option strengthens a single login by requiring two or more different factors, but it does not let one authentication carry across multiple separate applications without signing in again.
  • CThis choice limits each user to only the minimum permissions needed for their tasks, which governs how much access someone has rather than letting one login span several applications.
  • DThis guess is a list that enumerates which identities may access a resource and their rights, so it enforces permissions on a resource instead of carrying one sign-in across many apps.
SSO lets one set of credentials access multiple applications without signing in again — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.1 Summarize various security measures and their purposes

An administrator is told to give a temporary intern access to exactly the one shared folder and the single application required for their assignment, and nothing else on the network. Which security principle is being applied?

Answer
Correct answerC · Principle of least privilege

Granting an account only the minimum access needed to accomplish its assigned task, and no more, is the principle of least privilege.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis option lets a user reach many applications with one login, which is about sign-in convenience and does not describe restricting an account to only the minimum access its task requires.
  • BThis choice requires two or more different factors to verify identity at login, which strengthens authentication but says nothing about how narrowly a user's permissions should be scoped afterward.
  • DThis guess is the mechanism that lists who may access a resource, but the broader idea of granting only the minimum necessary rights to do the job is the principle being applied here.
Least privilege grants only the minimum access needed to perform assigned tasks — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.1 Summarize various security measures and their purposes

A technician is writing a password standard intended to resist brute-force and dictionary cracking while still being workable for users. Which requirement best meets current authoritative guidance?

Answer
Correct answerD · Require a long, unique passphrase for each account and ban common passwords

Authoritative guidance favors length and uniqueness, with at least 14 to 16 characters per account and blocklists of easy-to-guess passwords, to resist guessing attacks.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis is the classic trap: frequent forced changes plus heavy complexity rules push users toward predictable patterns, and reuse across systems means one breach exposes many accounts at once.
  • BThis choice still permits a common word that a dictionary attack tries first, so adding a single digit does little to stop automated guessing of an easily predictable password.
  • CThis guess sends the secret over an insecure channel where it can be intercepted or stored in mailboxes, which exposes the credential rather than strengthening the password policy itself.
Strong policy favors long, unique passphrases per account and bans common passwords over forced complexity — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.1 Summarize various security measures and their purposes

A security lead wants true multifactor authentication, meaning the two items a user presents must come from two different factor categories. Which pairing satisfies that requirement?

Answer
Correct answerA · A password plus a hardware security key

A password is something you know and a hardware security key is something you have, so combining them uses two distinct factor categories as required.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BThis option looks like two steps, but both a password and a PIN are secrets you memorize, so they belong to the same something-you-know category and do not form true multifactor authentication.
  • CThis choice uses two checks, yet both a fingerprint and a face scan are biometric traits in the something-you-are category, so it fails to combine two different factor types.
  • DThis guess simply doubles a single category, because each password is something you know, and stacking two knowledge secrets does not add a second, independent authentication factor.
True MFA combines factors from different categories: know, have, are — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.1 Summarize various security measures and their purposes

On a file server, each shared resource has an attached list that enumerates exactly which users and groups may access it and what rights, such as read or modify, each is granted. What is this list called?

Answer
Correct answerB · Access control list (ACL)

A list of entities together with the access rights they are authorized to have on a resource is an access control list.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis option is stored data representing a person's fingerprint or face used to verify identity, which has nothing to do with a list enumerating which accounts may access a particular resource.
  • CThis choice is something issued so one login can reach many applications, so it concerns carrying authentication across apps rather than enumerating who may access one specific resource and how.
  • DThis guess is a forged source address used to impersonate a trusted system, which is an attack technique and not a list that defines permitted access to a protected resource.
An ACL enumerates which entities may access a resource and the rights they hold — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.8 Use common data destruction and disposal methods

Before a self-encrypting laptop drive is removed from service and recycled, a technician must ensure the stored data cannot be recovered, even with lab techniques. Which approach actually achieves this?

Answer
Correct answerC · Sanitize the media (e.g., cryptographic erase) so the data is unrecoverable

Media sanitization, such as a cryptographic erase that destroys the encryption keys, renders the stored data unrecoverable by both ordinary and laboratory techniques.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis is a common misconception, because a quick format only clears the file table while the underlying data remains on the platters and is readily recoverable with ordinary tools.
  • BThis choice only removes pointers to the files, so the actual contents persist on the media until overwritten and can be retrieved with widely available recovery utilities.
  • DThis guess merely changes names and locations, leaving the full data intact on the drive where anyone with file access or recovery tools can still read it.
Sanitization (e.g., cryptographic erase) renders media data unrecoverable; formatting/deleting does not — 220-1202 Obj 2.8
2.4 Explain common social engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities

Attackers are actively exploiting a flaw in a widely used application for which the vendor has not yet released any patch and may not even be aware of the issue. How is this kind of exploit best described?

Answer
Correct answerD · Zero-day exploit

Exploiting a previously unknown software vulnerability before any official patch is available, while the vendor may be unaware of it, is a zero-day exploit.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AThis option guesses passwords from a wordlist of likely values, so it targets weak credentials rather than exploiting an unknown, unpatched software flaw that the vendor has not yet fixed.
  • BThis choice floods a target with traffic from many hosts to deny availability, which disrupts service rather than leveraging a previously unknown vulnerability for which no patch exists.
  • CThis guess intercepts and alters traffic between two parties, so it operates on data in transit and does not describe exploiting an unpatched, vendor-unknown software vulnerability.
A zero-day exploits an unknown vulnerability before any patch exists — 220-1202 Obj 2.4
2.10 Install and configure browser/relevant security settings

Before entering banking credentials, a user wants to confirm the site is authentic and the connection is encrypted, and is unsure whether to proceed when the browser displays a certificate warning. What is the best guidance?

Answer
Correct answerA · Verify a valid HTTPS certificate (padlock) and do not proceed past certificate warnings

A valid certificate with the HTTPS padlock signals an authenticated, encrypted connection, and an invalid-certificate warning may indicate interception, so the user should stop rather than continue.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BThis option overstates a pop-up blocker, which only suppresses unwanted windows and provides no assurance about a site's identity or whether the connection to it is actually encrypted.
  • CThis choice confuses controls, because password strength protects the account if the site is real but does nothing to verify the website's identity or the security of the connection.
  • DThis guess misuses SSO, which streamlines logins across applications but offers no guarantee that a particular destination site presents a valid certificate or an encrypted channel.
A valid HTTPS certificate (padlock) indicates an authenticated, encrypted site; heed certificate warnings — 220-1202 Obj 2.10
2.2 Wireless security protocols and authentication methods

A coffee shop wants customer laptops to reach the internet but never the point-of-sale terminals and back-office PCs that share the same router. Which wireless configuration best enforces this separation?

Answer
Correct answerC · Create a separate, logically isolated guest network

A logically separated guest WLAN with its own SSID keeps customer devices from reaching internal hosts, exactly the external-versus-internal separation recommended for this scenario.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AReducing transmit power only shrinks the coverage area and signal strength; it does nothing to stop a connected customer device from reaching the internal terminals on the same network.
  • BWPS only simplifies how a device joins the wireless network; once joined, the customer device still sits on the same LAN and can reach the point-of-sale terminals.
  • DSuppressing the SSID broadcast only stops the name from appearing in scans; connected customers remain on the same subnet and tools can still discover the hidden network.
A logically separated guest WLAN prevents customer devices from reaching internal hosts — 220-1202 Obj 2.2
2.2 Wireless security protocols and authentication methods

A technician is configuring a brand-new wireless router and wants the strongest currently available over-the-air encryption for client traffic. Which protocol should be selected?

Answer
Correct answerB · WPA3

WPA3 is the newest certified protocol and is described as the strongest available wireless encryption, delivering increased cryptographic strength and stronger protection against password guessing.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AWEP is a deprecated, easily cracked legacy protocol; choosing it for compatibility leaves wireless traffic exposed and is the opposite of selecting the strongest available encryption.
  • COriginal WPA with TKIP is an older, weaker protocol kept only for legacy support; it does not provide the strongest available encryption that the technician is asked to choose.
  • DA captive portal only gates access with a login page; traditional open networks transmit data without encryption, so this choice provides no strong over-the-air protection at all.
WPA3 is the strongest currently available certified wireless encryption — 220-1202 Obj 2.2
2.2 Wireless security protocols and authentication methods

An enterprise wants every employee to log in to corporate Wi-Fi with their own domain username and password, validated from one central directory instead of a single shared passphrase on each device. Which component delivers this?

Answer
Correct answerA · A RADIUS server using 802.1X (WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise)

A RADIUS server performs centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for 802.1X wireless, validating each user's unique credentials against the directory rather than a shared key.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BA pre-shared key gives every device the same secret and identifies no individual user, which is exactly the shared-passphrase model the enterprise is trying to replace.
  • CMAC filtering only checks a device's hardware address against an allow list; it authenticates hardware, not the person, and provides no per-user domain credential validation.
  • DDHCP reservations only assign predictable IP addresses to devices; they have nothing to do with verifying user identities or centralizing authentication for wireless access.
A RADIUS/802.1X server centralizes per-user authentication for enterprise Wi-Fi — 220-1202 Obj 2.2
2.2 Wireless security protocols and authentication methods

Hotel guests connect to a traditional open (no-password) Wi-Fi that displays a captive portal login page. Which security limitation should a technician warn them about?

Answer
Correct answerD · Traffic on the open network is unencrypted and can be captured by sniffing

Traditional open networks carry traffic in the clear, so an attacker within range can use sniffing tools to read passwords or other sensitive data sent over them.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA captive portal only intercepts the browser to force a login or acceptance page; it performs no malware inspection and gives no assurance about the safety of traffic.
  • BCompleting a portal login does not negotiate any encryption; a traditional open network stays unencrypted before and after sign-in, so this reassurance is false.
  • CHiding an SSID only removes the name from beacons; the radio frames are still broadcast in the clear and can be captured by anyone within range.
Traditional open Wi-Fi sends traffic unencrypted and is vulnerable to sniffing — 220-1202 Obj 2.2
2.5 Microsoft Windows OS security settings

After a pass-the-hash incident, a security team wants Windows to keep NTLM hashes and Kerberos ticket-granting tickets in a hardware-isolated process that even administrator-level malware on the machine cannot read. Which feature provides this?

Answer
Correct answerB · Windows Defender Credential Guard

Credential Guard uses virtualization-based security to move NTLM hashes and Kerberos TGTs into the isolated LSA process, where the running operating system and its malware cannot reach them.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AUAC only asks users to approve actions that need administrative rights; it does not isolate stored secrets, so it cannot stop credential-theft tools from reading hashes in memory.
  • CBitLocker encrypts volumes to protect data at rest on lost or stolen drives; it does not isolate live authentication secrets in memory from credential-dumping attacks.
  • DThe firewall filters inbound and outbound network connections; it offers no protection for credential material held in the Local Security Authority's process memory.
Credential Guard uses VBS to isolate NTLM hashes and Kerberos TGTs from the OS — 220-1202 Obj 2.5
2.5 Microsoft Windows OS security settings

To slow online password-guessing against domain accounts, an administrator wants Windows to disable an account automatically after a defined number of consecutive failed sign-ins. Which Group Policy setting accomplishes this?

Answer
Correct answerC · Account lockout threshold

The account lockout threshold sets the number of failed sign-ins that locks an account, directly limiting automated guessing by stopping further attempts once the limit is hit.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AMinimum password length only forces longer passwords at creation time; it raises the cost of guessing but never disables an account after repeated failed sign-in attempts.
  • BComplexity rules force a mix of character types when a password is set; they strengthen the secret itself but do not lock an account after bad attempts.
  • DMaximum password age only forces users to change their password after a set number of days; it has no effect on locking accounts during a guessing attack.
Account lockout threshold disables an account after a set number of failed sign-ins — 220-1202 Obj 2.5
2.5 Microsoft Windows OS security settings

A workstation runs fine, but several vendor security bulletins describing exploitable flaws were published last month. What is the most effective routine action to protect it against attacks that target those known flaws?

Answer
Correct answerA · Apply OS and application security updates promptly

Security updates close the specific vulnerabilities attackers exploit, and installing them as soon as possible, ideally automatically, is the most effective defense against known flaws.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BTurning off the firewall removes a protective control and is unnecessary for updates; it widens the attack surface rather than addressing the published vulnerabilities at all.
  • CAdding another administrator account does nothing to patch the flawed code and actually increases the number of privileged credentials an attacker could target.
  • DDefragmentation only reorganizes files to improve disk performance; it has no relationship to fixing security vulnerabilities or blocking exploitation of unpatched software.
Promptly applying security updates closes known, exploitable vulnerabilities — 220-1202 Obj 2.5
2.5 Microsoft Windows OS security settings

To stop malware on USB flash drives from launching the instant a drive is inserted into company PCs, which hardening step should be deployed through Group Policy?

Answer
Correct answerD · Disable AutoRun/AutoPlay on removable media

Disabling AutoRun and AutoPlay stops Windows from automatically running programs when media is inserted, removing the exact mechanism worms use to spread from USB drives.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ABitLocker To Go encrypts data on removable drives so it cannot be read if lost; it protects confidentiality but does not stop inserted media from auto-executing programs.
  • BThe lockout threshold only governs failed sign-in attempts against accounts; it has no influence on whether files on inserted removable media run automatically.
  • CFirewall logging only records network connection events for later review; it neither inspects USB media nor prevents code on a drive from executing on insertion.
Disabling AutoRun/AutoPlay stops inserted media from auto-executing malware — 220-1202 Obj 2.5
2.1 Summarize various security measures and their purposes

In a Windows Active Directory domain, which authentication protocol issues time-limited tickets from a Key Distribution Center and lets the client and server mutually verify each other's identity?

Answer
Correct answerB · Kerberos

Kerberos issues renewable tickets from the Key Distribution Center and lets each party verify the other, providing the ticket-based mutual authentication described in the scenario.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ANTLM uses a challenge-response exchange and assumes the server is genuine; it does not issue KDC tickets and does not let the client verify the server's identity.
  • CPAP simply transmits a username and password, historically in clear text, with no tickets, no key distribution center, and no mutual verification of the server.
  • DCHAP periodically re-verifies a peer with a hashed challenge over point-to-point links; it issues no Kerberos-style tickets and is not the domain ticketing protocol described.
Kerberos issues KDC tickets and provides mutual authentication in AD domains — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.1 Summarize various security measures and their purposes

A federal agency issues each employee a tamper-resistant card that stores their private key and an X.509 certificate; signing in requires inserting the card and entering a PIN. Which authentication method is described?

Answer
Correct answerC · Smart card (PIV) certificate-based authentication

A PIV smart card is a tamper-resistant device storing the private key and X.509 certificate, and combining the card with a PIN provides the certificate-based two-factor logon described.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA TOTP app produces rotating numeric codes from a shared seed; it involves no physical card, no stored private key, and no X.509 certificate as described here.
  • BA synced FIDO2 passkey lives in software across devices rather than on a tamper-resistant issued card holding a certificate and PIN, so it does not match the description.
  • DKnowledge questions and a password are both 'something you know' and involve no certificate or hardware token, so they cannot represent the card-and-PIN method described.
A PIV smart card stores a private key and X.509 certificate for certificate-based logon — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.1 Summarize various security measures and their purposes

A company wants the most phishing-resistant second factor for employee logins. Which 'something you have' option should it prioritize over SMS one-time codes?

Answer
Correct answerA · A FIDO/WebAuthn hardware security key

FIDO/WebAuthn hardware keys are the widely available phishing-resistant authenticator; they validate the real site and block attempts to authenticate against attacker-controlled fake pages.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BSMS codes can be phished, intercepted, or defeated by SIM-swapping, so although better than no second factor they are explicitly weaker than phishing-resistant options.
  • CKnowledge-based questions are 'something you know,' are easily researched or guessed from social media, and are not a possession factor at all, let alone phishing-resistant.
  • DA stronger password is still a single knowledge factor that can be phished or harvested; it adds no second factor and does not deliver phishing resistance.
FIDO/WebAuthn hardware keys are the phishing-resistant 'something you have' factor — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.1 Summarize various security measures and their purposes

Management wants a system that detects and blocks employees from emailing files that contain credit-card numbers or Social Security numbers outside the company. Which control category fits this requirement?

Answer
Correct answerD · Data loss prevention (DLP)

DLP inspects content to identify and monitor sensitive data and can block its unauthorized transmission, which is exactly what is needed to stop sensitive emails leaving.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AAn IDS watches network traffic for attack signatures and anomalies and raises alerts; it is not built to inspect message content for sensitive data and block its transmission.
  • BA host firewall allows or blocks connections based on ports, addresses, and applications; it does not analyze the content of files or emails for regulated personal information.
  • CFull-disk encryption protects data at rest on a lost or stolen drive; it does not monitor outbound email or stop an authenticated user from sending sensitive files.
DLP identifies sensitive content and blocks its unauthorized transmission — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.1 Summarize various security measures and their purposes

An employee's laptop is stolen from a parked car. Which control, if applied beforehand, best ensures the thief cannot read the company files stored on the drive?

Answer
Correct answerB · Full-disk encryption (BitLocker) on the drive

Full-disk encryption renders the entire volume unreadable without the proper key or PIN, so data stays protected even if the drive is removed and attached elsewhere.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA logon or screen-saver password can be bypassed by removing the drive and reading it in another machine, because the data on the platters itself is left unencrypted.
  • CA firewall only controls network connections to and from the device; it provides no protection for files when an attacker has the physical drive in hand offline.
  • DAntivirus detects and removes malware on a running system; it does nothing to stop someone who has physically taken the drive from copying its unencrypted files.
Full-disk encryption keeps data at rest unreadable on a lost or stolen device — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.7 Mobile and embedded device security

A salesperson reports their company iPhone, which held customer data, was lost in an airport. Which action best prevents exposure of the data already on the device?

Answer
Correct answerC · Issue a remote wipe to erase all content and settings

A remote wipe erases the device's content and settings, removing the stored customer data so a finder or thief cannot access it after the loss.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AChanging the account password protects future logons to corporate systems but does nothing about the customer data already stored locally on the missing phone.
  • BSending an OS update would only patch software if the phone were recovered and online; it does not remove or protect the data sitting on the lost handset.
  • DA shorter lock timeout is a preventive hardening setting; once the device is already lost it cannot be pushed reliably and does not remove the data at risk.
Remote wipe erases content on a lost or stolen mobile device — 220-1202 Obj 2.7
2.7 Mobile and embedded device security

A policy requires a passcode/screen lock on all company smartphones. Beyond stopping casual snooping, why is enforcing the device passcode important?

Answer
Correct answerA · A passcode supplies entropy that enables device data encryption

On modern phones the passcode feeds entropy into the device encryption keys, so setting a passcode turns on data protection and a stronger passcode yields stronger encryption.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BLocking the screen does not turn off the cellular radio; the device keeps receiving calls, messages, and push notifications, so this stated benefit is simply incorrect.
  • CA passcode controls unlock access only; operating-system and app updates are a separate process and are never triggered merely by configuring a screen lock.
  • DA passcode has no effect on wireless connectivity; the phone can still join Wi-Fi networks normally whether or not a screen lock is configured.
A device passcode enables and strengthens mobile data encryption — 220-1202 Obj 2.7
2.7 Mobile and embedded device security

A company issues hundreds of tablets and needs to enforce screen-lock rules, deploy approved apps, and wipe lost devices, all from a single management console. Which solution provides this centralized control?

Answer
Correct answerD · Mobile device management (MDM/EMM) enrollment

Enrolling devices into MDM/EMM centralizes management so administrators can enforce screen-lock policies, distribute apps, and remotely wipe lost tablets from one console.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA VPN concentrator builds encrypted tunnels between networks; it does not enroll tablets or enforce per-device policies like screen locks, app deployment, and remote wipe.
  • BA RADIUS server centralizes network authentication, authorization, and accounting for connections; it cannot push configuration policies or applications onto managed mobile devices.
  • CA DLP appliance inspects traffic to stop sensitive data from leaving; it does not enroll devices or manage their lock settings, apps, and remote-wipe operations.
MDM/EMM enrollment centrally enforces policy, deploys apps, and wipes devices — 220-1202 Obj 2.7
2.1 Summarize various security measures and their purposes

A remote employee must reach company resources from a hotel's public Wi-Fi. Which measure best protects the confidentiality of their data while it travels across that untrusted network?

Answer
Correct answerB · Using a VPN to encrypt the data in transit

A VPN builds an encrypted tunnel to a trusted network, so even on untrusted public Wi-Fi the employee's data in transit cannot be read by anyone sniffing the link.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ASignal strength only affects speed and reliability; a strong-but-open public network still carries traffic that an attacker within range can intercept and read.
  • CRemoving the screen lock weakens physical security and does nothing to encrypt traffic; data crossing the public network would remain just as exposed to interception.
  • DSuspending updates leaves known vulnerabilities unpatched and has no effect on protecting data as it moves across the untrusted wireless network.
A VPN encrypts data in transit across untrusted public networks — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.2 Wireless security protocols and authentication methods

An organization wants wireless clients to authenticate using installed digital certificates instead of passwords, removing a credential that attackers could phish. Which 802.1X method supports this?

Answer
Correct answerC · EAP-TLS using client X.509 certificates

EAP-TLS authenticates each client with an installed X.509 certificate over 802.1X, replacing phishable passwords with certificate-based credentials as the organization requires.

Why the other options are wrong
  • APAP simply passes a reusable username and password and supports no certificate exchange, so it neither eliminates phishable credentials nor fits certificate-based 802.1X.
  • BWPA2-Personal authenticates every device with one shared passphrase rather than per-client certificates, leaving a shared secret that can be captured or shared improperly.
  • DMAC filtering only compares a device's hardware address to an allow list; it issues no certificates, verifies no user, and is easily defeated by address spoofing.
EAP-TLS uses client X.509 certificates for certificate-based 802.1X authentication — 220-1202 Obj 2.2
2.4 Social engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities

At an airport, a traveler's laptop lists two Wi-Fi networks with the identical name 'Airport_Free_WiFi.' The stronger, password-free one opens a page asking for an email and password before granting internet. Which attack is most likely in progress?

Answer
Correct answerA · An evil twin access point

A fraudulent access point broadcasting a legitimate network's SSID with a stronger signal and a credential-harvesting portal is the textbook evil twin, exactly as described here.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BA DDoS attack overwhelms a target with traffic to make it unavailable; it does not create a duplicate-named network or present a fake login page to capture credentials.
  • CSQL injection inserts malicious database queries into a vulnerable web form on a server; it does not explain a second Wi-Fi network appearing with the same broadcast name.
  • DA zero-day silently exploits an unpatched software flaw without user interaction; it would not surface as a duplicate visible SSID asking the user to type in credentials.
A duplicate-SSID rogue AP with a credential portal is an evil twin — 220-1202 Obj 2.4
2.3 Detect, remove, and prevent malware

A user reports that every document on their workstation now has an unfamiliar extension and will not open, and a text file on the desktop demands payment in Bitcoin within 72 hours to restore access. Which type of malware best fits this behavior?

Answer
Correct answerC · Ransomware

Encrypting a victim's files and then demanding payment, often in cryptocurrency, to restore access is the defining behavior of ransomware, precisely matching the described symptoms.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA keylogger covertly captures typed input such as passwords and stays hidden; it does not encrypt files or post a visible note demanding cryptocurrency to release the data.
  • BA rootkit conceals an attacker's presence and maintains stealthy persistence; its goal is to avoid detection rather than to advertise itself with an extortion message and locked files.
  • DSpyware secretly gathers information about a user and sends it elsewhere without disrupting access; it does not render documents unusable or leave a ransom demand on the desktop.
File encryption plus a payment demand is ransomware — 220-1202 Obj 2.3
2.3 Detect, remove, and prevent malware

A company wants to be sure it can restore its data without paying if ransomware ever encrypts its servers. Which preparation gives the best chance of recovery?

Answer
Correct answerB · Maintain offline, regularly tested backups of critical data

Offline backups that ransomware cannot reach and encrypt, and that are tested for restorability, let an organization rebuild its systems without paying, which is the recommended recovery preparation.

Why the other options are wrong
  • APaying offers no guarantee of a working decryptor, funds further crime, and is explicitly discouraged; it is a last resort, not a reliable recovery preparation an organization should plan around.
  • CMany ransomware variants specifically locate and delete or encrypt accessible local shadow copies and backups, so copies on the same machine are commonly destroyed during the attack.
  • DStronger passwords help prevent some intrusions but do nothing to restore already-encrypted files; this control addresses initial access, not the ability to recover data after an incident.
Offline, tested backups enable ransomware recovery without paying — 220-1202 Obj 2.3
2.5 Workstation and device security best practices

A technician is deploying a new internet-facing network appliance that ships with a well-known factory username and password printed in its quick-start guide. Which hardening step should be completed before the device goes into production?

Answer
Correct answerD · Change the default administrator credentials

Factory default usernames and passwords are publicly documented and identical across a product line, so replacing them is the essential first hardening step to block trivial unauthorized access.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA static address makes the device easier to find and manage but provides no protection if anyone can still log in with the publicly documented factory username and password.
  • BTurning on a guest network adds an additional access path and is unrelated to the immediate risk; it does nothing to close the well-known default-credential hole on the device.
  • CDisabling the firewall removes a protective layer and widens the attack surface; weakening defenses during setup is the opposite of hardening and leaves the device more exposed online.
Replace publicly documented factory credentials before deployment — 220-1202 Obj 2.5
2.1 Physical security measures

A data center keeps experiencing unauthorized people slipping in directly behind badged employees through the single door to the server room. Which physical control most directly prevents this following-through-the-door problem?

Answer
Correct answerA · An access control vestibule

A vestibule places interlocking doors between an outer and inner area so only one authorized person passes at a time, which is purpose-built to stop piggybacking and tailgating.

Why the other options are wrong
  • BA camera is a detective control that records who entered after the fact; it can document the tailgating but does nothing to physically stop the extra person from entering.
  • CA perimeter fence controls who reaches the property boundary but offers no control at the interior server-room door, where the unauthorized following is actually occurring.
  • DA stronger PIN only strengthens the credential of the authorized person; once that person opens the door, a follower can still walk in behind them before it closes.
An access control vestibule (mantrap) stops tailgating/piggybacking — 220-1202 Obj 2.1
2.8 Data destruction and disposal methods

A solid-state drive (SSD) holding sensitive records has physically failed and no longer responds to any software, so it cannot be overwritten or cryptographically erased before disposal. Which method best ensures the data cannot be recovered?

Answer
Correct answerC · Physically destroy the SSD by shredding or pulverizing it

When a drive cannot be sanitized by software, NIST's Destroy methods such as shredding or pulverizing the media render the data unrecoverable, which fits this dead, unwritable SSD.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ADegaussing only disrupts magnetic media such as hard disks and tape; it has no effect on an SSD's flash memory cells, so the stored data would remain fully recoverable.
  • BA failed, unresponsive SSD cannot accept write commands, and flash wear-leveling can leave copies of data in cells that a normal overwrite never addresses anyway.
  • DA drive that no longer responds to the system cannot execute any firmware-based reset utility, and a simple factory reset may not purge data from every flash cell regardless.
When sanitization is impossible, NIST Destroy (shred/pulverize) ensures unrecoverability — 220-1202 Obj 2.8
2.7 Mobile and embedded device security

An enterprise issues corporate smartphones and wants to keep employees from installing unvetted apps that could carry mobile malware. Which MDM/EMM policy best addresses this specific goal?

Answer
Correct answerB · Allow only managed-app-store apps and block sideloading

Limiting installs to reviewed apps from the official or managed store, and blocking sideloading, directly applies mobile application vetting so unvetted malware-bearing apps cannot be loaded.

Why the other options are wrong
  • AA screen-lock passcode protects data if a device is lost or stolen but does nothing to stop an authorized user from installing a malicious or unvetted application themselves.
  • CRemote wipe is a recovery measure for missing devices; it removes data after the fact and provides no control over what applications a user chooses to install day to day.
  • DA VPN protects data while it travels across untrusted networks but does not inspect or restrict which apps are installed, so a malicious app could still be downloaded and run.
Restricting installs to vetted/official-store apps blocks unvetted mobile malware — 220-1202 Obj 2.7
2.6 Authentication and multifactor methods

A security team is adding a second authentication factor but is concerned that SIM-swapping and SS7 interception could let attackers steal one-time codes sent by text message. Which 'something you have' factor avoids those specific weaknesses while remaining easy to deploy?

Answer
Correct answerD · A time-based one-time password from an authenticator app

An authenticator app generates codes on the device itself rather than transmitting them over the cellular network, so SIM-swap and SS7 interception of SMS do not apply to it.

Why the other options are wrong
  • ASMS delivery is exactly the channel under concern, because codes sent by text can be intercepted through SS7 protocol exploitation or redirected to an attacker via a SIM-swap.
  • BA stronger password is still a single 'something you know' factor; it adds no independent second factor and does not address interception of a delivered second-factor code at all.
  • CA security question is another knowledge factor whose answer is often guessable or discoverable through research; it is not a 'something you have' factor and is unrelated to SMS risks.
Authenticator-app TOTP avoids SMS-specific SIM-swap and SS7 interception — 220-1202 Obj 2.6

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About this domain

Domain 2, Security, is 25% of A+ Core 2 (220-1202). It spans malware types, social engineering and attacks, authentication and access control, wireless and workstation hardening, mobile security, and data destruction. Expect to identify an attack from a scenario or pick the right control to mitigate a threat.

Know the malware signatures (ransomware, rootkit, trojan, keylogger), the social-engineering playbook (phishing, vishing, tailgating, evil twin), authentication concepts (MFA factors, least privilege, NTFS vs share permissions), and secure data-destruction methods (degaussing, shredding, secure erase).

What Domain 2 covers

Domain 2 quick glossary

The terms that show up most on Domain 2 questions — one line each.

RansomwareMalware that encrypts files and demands payment for the key.
RootkitStealth malware that hides itself with elevated/kernel privileges.
PhishingDeceptive messages that trick users into revealing credentials.
MFAMulti-factor authentication using two or more independent factors.
Least privilegeGranting each account only the access it needs.
WPA3Current Wi-Fi security standard with stronger encryption than WPA2.
BitLockerWindows full-disk encryption protecting data at rest.
DegaussingErasing magnetic media by disrupting its magnetic field.

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